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100+ Free FAA IEP Knowledge Test Practice Questions

Prepare for the FAA IEP Knowledge Test — Instrument Rating Airplane EU Part – FCL Conversion exam with instant access — no signup required.

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Key Facts: FAA IEP Knowledge Test Exam

40

Official Exam Questions

FAA Airman Testing Matrix

120 min

Time Limit

PSI / FAA Testing Specs

70%

Passing Score

FAA Airman Testing

$175

Exam Fee

PSI Services

The FAA IEP test enables EASA Instrument Rating holders to convert to an FAA IR(A) by evaluating knowledge of US-specific IFR regulations, airspace, clearance formats, charts, and weather products.

Sample FAA IEP Knowledge Test Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your FAA IEP Knowledge Test exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the FAA-EASA Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) Implementation Procedures for Licensing (IPL), what is a mandatory prerequisite for an EASA IR(A) holder applying for the FAA IEP Knowledge Test?
A.Must hold a valid, un-revoked EASA Part-FCL Instrument Rating (Airplane) and an FAA Private Pilot Certificate or higher
B.Must log at least 100 hours of instrument flight time in US National Airspace prior to taking the knowledge test
C.Must complete a 40-hour ground school course certified under 14 CFR Part 141
D.Must possess an EASA Commercial Pilot License with at least 500 hours of multi-engine time
Explanation: Under the FAA-EASA BASA IPL agreement, an applicant for the FAA IEP Knowledge Test must hold a valid, current EASA Part-FCL Instrument Rating for airplanes and an FAA Private Pilot Certificate or higher (which may be based on a foreign license validation under 14 CFR 61.75). No minimum US airspace flight hours or Part 141 ground school are required prior to taking the test.
2Under 14 CFR 91.169, when filing an IFR flight plan for a destination airport with a published precision instrument approach, an alternate airport is NOT required if weather forecasts indicate that for at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, the ceiling and visibility will be at least:
A.1,500 feet above the lowest MDA and 2 statute miles visibility
B.2,000 feet above airport elevation and 3 statute miles visibility
C.1,000 feet above airport elevation and 2 statute miles visibility
D.3,000 feet above airport elevation and 5 statute miles visibility
Explanation: 14 CFR 91.169 states the standard '1-2-3 rule': an alternate airport is not required if, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival (ETA), weather reports/forecasts indicate a ceiling of at least 2,000 feet above airport elevation and visibility of at least 3 statute miles.
3If standard alternate weather minimums apply to a designated alternate airport with a non-precision approach procedure, what minimum ceiling and visibility must be forecast at the ETA?
A.600-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility
B.800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility
C.1,000-foot ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility
D.800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility
Explanation: Under 14 CFR 91.169, standard alternate weather minimums for an airport with a non-precision approach procedure are an 800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. Standard minimums for precision approaches are 600-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
4Under 14 CFR 91.169, if an alternate airport has no published instrument approach procedure, what weather minimums must be forecast at the estimated time of arrival?
A.Ceiling and visibility must allow descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR conditions
B.At least 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility
C.At least 800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility
D.It cannot be listed as an IFR alternate airport under any circumstances
Explanation: 14 CFR 91.169(c)(2) states that if no instrument approach procedure has been published for the alternate airport, the ceiling and visibility minimums must allow descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR conditions.
5What are the minimum fuel reserve requirements for an airplane operating under IFR conditions under 14 CFR 91.167?
A.Enough fuel to fly to the destination airport, then to the alternate (if required), and thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
B.Enough fuel to fly to the destination airport, then for 30 minutes at holding speed
C.Enough fuel to fly to the destination, then to the alternate, and thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed
D.Enough fuel to fly to the destination, then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed, with no alternate requirement
Explanation: 14 CFR 91.167 mandates that no person may operate an airplane in IFR conditions unless it carries enough fuel to complete the flight to the destination airport, fly from that airport to the alternate airport (if required), and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
6A pilot files an IFR flight plan to Destination A (flight time 2.0 hours). Weather requires filing Alternate B (flight time from A to B is 0.5 hours). Aircraft fuel burn is 12.0 GPH. Under 14 CFR 91.167, what is the minimum total usable fuel required at takeoff?
A.30.0 gallons
B.33.0 gallons
C.39.0 gallons
D.45.0 gallons
Explanation: Total fuel required = (Flight time to Destination: 2.0 hrs + Flight time to Alternate: 0.5 hrs + Reserve: 45 min [0.75 hrs]) × 12.0 GPH = 3.25 hrs × 12.0 GPH = 39.0 gallons.
7To act as pilot in command under IFR or in weather conditions less than VFR minimums, what recent flight experience must a pilot log within the preceding 6 calendar months under 14 CFR 61.57(c)?
A.6 instrument approaches, holding procedures and tasks, and intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems
B.6 hours of simulated or actual IFR flight time including 3 ILS approaches
C.10 instrument approaches and an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) with a CFII
D.3 instrument approaches and 3 hours of instrument flight time in the same category and class
Explanation: 14 CFR 61.57(c) requires that within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, the pilot must have performed and logged at least 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures and tasks, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational electronic systems ('6-6-HIT').
8When flying under simulated instrument flight conditions using a view-limiting device, 14 CFR 91.109 requires that the safety pilot must:
A.Hold at least a Private Pilot Certificate with appropriate category and class ratings, possess a current medical certificate, and occupy a control seat equipped with dual controls
B.Hold an Instrument Rating and a Flight Instructor Certificate (CFII)
C.Log PIC time for the entire flight regardless of whether acting as PIC
D.Be qualified to act as Pilot in Command under IFR in the specific aircraft type
Explanation: Under 14 CFR 91.109(c), the safety pilot must hold at least a Private Pilot Certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown, hold a valid medical certificate, and occupy a control seat with fully functioning dual controls.
9If a pilot allows instrument currency under 14 CFR 61.57(c) to lapse for more than 6 calendar months beyond the initial 6-month currency window, how may currency be re-established?
A.By completing an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) administered by an authorized instructor, examiner, or FAA inspector
B.By logging 6 instrument approaches with a safety pilot in VFR conditions
C.By completing a standard Flight Review (14 CFR 61.56) with a ground instructor
D.By passing the FAA IEP Knowledge Test again
Explanation: If a pilot's 6-month currency and 6-month grace period (total 12 calendar months) expire, instrument currency can only be restored by successfully passing an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) under 14 CFR 61.57(d).
10Under 14 CFR 91.205(d), which instruments and equipment are required for powered civil aircraft with standard U.S. airworthiness certificates operating under IFR (GRABCARD)?
A.Generator/alternator, Radios/nav equipment, Sensitive altimeter, Ball (slip/skid), Clock with sweep second hand/digital display, Attitude indicator, Rate-of-turn indicator, Directional gyro
B.Dual VHF radios, Autopilot with altitude hold, Radar altimeter, Weather radar, Deicing boots
C.GPS WAAS navigator, Transponder with ADS-B In, Electronic flight bag, Oxygen system
D.Generator, VHF comm/nav, VOR receiver, Vertical speed indicator, Angle of attack indicator
Explanation: 14 CFR 91.205(d) requires IFR equipment commonly remembered by the mnemonic GRABCARD: Generator/alternator, Radios/nav gear suitable for route, Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure, Ball (slip-skid indicator), Clock displaying hours/minutes/seconds, Attitude indicator, Rate-of-turn indicator, and Directional gyro (heading indicator).

About the FAA IEP Knowledge Test Exam

The FAA IEP Knowledge Test is required for European pilots holding a valid EASA Part-FCL Instrument Rating (Airplane) who wish to obtain an FAA Instrument Rating (Airplane) endorsement under the FAA-EASA Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) Implementation Procedures for Licensing (IPL).

Assessment

40 multiple-choice questions testing 14 CFR Part 61/91 regulations, US airspace, ATC clearance shorthand, TPP approach charts, and US aviation meteorology.

Time Limit

2 hours (120 minutes)

Passing Score

70%

Exam Fee

$175 (Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) / PSI Services)

FAA IEP Knowledge Test Exam Content Outline

30%

14 CFR Part 61 / Part 91 IFR Regulations

FAA IFR regulatory structure, 1-2-3 alternate airport selection rules, alternate weather minimums, 45-minute IFR fuel reserves (91.167), 6-6-HIT instrument currency, GRABCARD required equipment (91.205), MEL procedures, safety pilot rules, and EASA vs FAA regulatory differences.

25%

US National Airspace & ATC IFR Procedures

Class A-E IFR airspace rules, CRAFT clearance shorthand format, Clearance Void Times, lost communications procedures (AVE-F and MEA under 91.185), departure procedures (ODP vs SID), climb gradient calculations, RVSM rules, and mandatory position reporting.

25%

Instrument Approach Procedures & FAA Charts

FAA Terminal Procedures Publication (TPP) chart interpretation, RNAV (GPS) approach minimums (LPV, LNAV/VNAV, LNAV), WAAS and RAIM requirements, holding pattern entries (Direct, Teardrop, Parallel), max holding airspeeds, glidepath rate of descent calculations, circling minimums, and 91.175 visual descent rules.

20%

US Weather Products & Aviation Meteorology

US METAR/TAF format vs European formats (inHg vs hPa, SM vs meters), altimeter setting pressure conversions, altimeter error analysis, in-flight advisories (AIRMET Sierra/Tango/Zulu, SIGMET, Convective SIGMET), PIREP decoding, icing types (SLD/freezing rain), microbursts, and freezing level lapse rate calculations.

How to Pass the FAA IEP Knowledge Test Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 70%
  • Assessment: 40 multiple-choice questions testing 14 CFR Part 61/91 regulations, US airspace, ATC clearance shorthand, TPP approach charts, and US aviation meteorology.
  • Time limit: 2 hours (120 minutes)
  • Exam fee: $175

Keys to Passing

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

FAA IEP Knowledge Test Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize 14 CFR 91.169 (1-2-3 rule) for alternate filing and 91.167 for IFR fuel reserves.
2Understand GRABCARD requirements under 14 CFR 91.205(d) for IFR flight.
3Master the CRAFT clearance shorthand acronym (Clearance limit, Route, Altitude, Frequency, Transponder code).
4Learn lost comms rules under 91.185 (AVE-F for route, MEA for altitude).
5Practice rate of descent calculations for 3-degree glidepaths (Groundspeed × 5) and altimeter conversions (1 inHg = 33.86 hPa).
6Study FAA Terminal Procedures Publication (TPP) approach chart layouts and holding entry procedures.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the FAA IEP Knowledge Test?

The FAA IEP (Instrument Rating Airplane EU Part – FCL Conversion) Knowledge Test is a specialized 40-question exam for pilots holding a valid EASA Part-FCL Instrument Rating (Airplane) converting to an FAA Instrument Rating under the FAA-EASA BASA agreement.

Who is eligible to take the FAA IEP exam?

Pilots who hold a valid, current EASA Part-FCL Instrument Rating for airplanes (IR(A)) and an FAA Private Pilot Certificate (or foreign pilot validation under 14 CFR 61.75).

How many questions are on the official FAA IEP exam and what is the passing score?

The official test contains 40 multiple-choice questions. The passing score is 70% (at least 28 correct answers out of 40), and candidates are allowed 2 hours (120 minutes).

What are the main differences between FAA and EASA IFR rules covered on the IEP exam?

Key differences include the FAA 1-2-3 rule for alternate airport filing, 45-minute IFR fuel reserve (destination + alternate + 45 min), altimeter setting format in inches of mercury (inHg) rather than hectopascals (hPa), visibility in Statute Miles, and US clearance shorthand (CRAFT).

Is a practical flight test (checkride) required after passing the IEP exam?

Under the FAA-EASA IPL agreement, passing the IEP knowledge test and receiving an AC Form 8080-2 Airman Knowledge Test Report enables an authorized FAA examiner or DPE to issue the FAA Instrument Rating endorsement following verification of prerequisites and an oral/flight check as mandated by current IPL procedures.

Does the FAA publish topic weightings for the IEP knowledge test?

No. The FAA Airman Knowledge Testing Matrix publishes the test code, question count, minimum age, allotted time and passing score, but no percentage breakdown by subject. The content outline and percentages shown on this page describe how this free practice bank distributes its questions across the knowledge areas drawn from the applicable FAA testing supplement, Airman Certification Standards or Practical Test Standards, and the FAA handbooks for this test.