FAA IEP Knowledge Test — Instrument Rating Airplane EU Part – FCL Conversion

Under the FAA-EASA Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) Implementation Procedures for Licensing (IPL), what is a mandatory prerequisite for an EASA IR(A) holder applying for the FAA IEP Knowledge Test?

• AMust hold a valid, un-revoked EASA Part-FCL Instrument Rating (Airplane) and an FAA Priva…
• BMust log at least 100 hours of instrument flight time in US National Airspace prior to ta…
• CMust complete a 40-hour ground school course certified under 14 CFR Part 141
• DMust possess an EASA Commercial Pilot License with at least 500 hours of multi-engine time

For a Part 91 airplane IFR flight to a destination with a published instrument approach, what are the minimum destination ceiling and visibility thresholds throughout ETA minus 1 hour to ETA plus 1 hour for the 91.169 no-alternate exception?

• A1,500 feet above the lowest MDA and 2 statute miles visibility
• B2,000 feet above airport elevation and 3 statute miles visibility
• C1,000 feet above airport elevation and 2 statute miles visibility
• D3,000 feet above airport elevation and 5 statute miles visibility

If standard alternate weather minimums apply to a designated alternate airport with a non-precision approach procedure, what minimum ceiling and visibility must be forecast at the ETA?

• A600-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility
• B800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility
• C1,000-foot ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility
• D800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility

Under 14 CFR 91.169, if an alternate airport has no published instrument approach procedure, what weather minimums must be forecast at the estimated time of arrival?

• ACeiling and visibility must allow descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic…
• BAt least 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility
• CAt least 800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility
• DIt cannot be listed as an IFR alternate airport under any circumstances

What are the minimum fuel reserve requirements for an airplane operating under IFR conditions under 14 CFR 91.167?

• AEnough fuel to fly to the destination airport, then to the alternate (if required), and t…
• BEnough fuel to fly to the destination airport, then for 30 minutes at holding speed
• CEnough fuel to fly to the destination, then to the alternate, and thereafter for 30 minut…
• DEnough fuel to fly to the destination, then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed, with…

A pilot files an IFR flight plan to Destination A (flight time 2.0 hours). Weather requires filing Alternate B (flight time from A to B is 0.5 hours). Aircraft fuel burn is 12.0 GPH. Under 14 CFR 91.167, what is the minimum total usable fuel required at takeoff?

• A30.0 gallons
• B33.0 gallons
• C39.0 gallons
• D45.0 gallons

To act as pilot in command under IFR or in weather conditions less than VFR minimums, what recent flight experience must a pilot log within the preceding 6 calendar months under 14 CFR 61.57(c)?

• A6 instrument approaches, holding procedures and tasks, and intercepting and tracking cour…
• B6 hours of simulated or actual IFR flight time including 3 ILS approaches
• C10 instrument approaches and an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) with a CFII
• D3 instrument approaches and 3 hours of instrument flight time in the same category and cl…

When flying under simulated instrument flight conditions using a view-limiting device, 14 CFR 91.109 requires that the safety pilot must:

• AHold at least a Private Pilot Certificate with appropriate category and class ratings, po…
• BHold an Instrument Rating and a Flight Instructor Certificate (CFII)
• CLog PIC time for the entire flight regardless of whether acting as PIC
• DBe qualified to act as Pilot in Command under IFR in the specific aircraft type

If a pilot allows instrument currency under 14 CFR 61.57(c) to lapse for more than 6 calendar months beyond the initial 6-month currency window, how may currency be re-established?

• ABy completing an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) administered by an authorized instruc…
• BBy logging 6 instrument approaches with a safety pilot in VFR conditions
• CBy completing a standard Flight Review (14 CFR 61.56) with a ground instructor
• DBy passing the FAA IEP Knowledge Test again

Under 14 CFR 91.205(d), which instruments and equipment are required for powered civil aircraft with standard U.S. airworthiness certificates operating under IFR (GRABCARD)?

• AGenerator/alternator, Radios/nav equipment, Sensitive altimeter, Ball (slip/skid), Clock…
• BDual VHF radios, Autopilot with altitude hold, Radar altimeter, Weather radar, Deicing bo…
• CGPS WAAS navigator, Transponder with ADS-B In, Electronic flight bag, Oxygen system
• DGenerator, VHF comm/nav, VOR receiver, Vertical speed indicator, Angle of attack indicator

Under 14 CFR 91.213, what is the primary purpose of a Minimum Equipment List (MEL)?

• ATo permit an aircraft to be operated under specific conditions with particular inoperativ…
• BTo list the absolute minimum maintenance inspection intervals required for charter operat…
• CTo specify mandatory pilot equipment required for night flights in Class G airspace
• DTo define standard manufacturer specifications for avionics replacements

For a Part 91 aircraft operating WITHOUT an approved Minimum Equipment List (MEL), which step must be performed under 14 CFR 91.213(d) prior to takeoff if an instrument is found inoperative?

• AEnsure the item is not required by 91.205 or Airworthiness Directives, deactivate or remo…
• BObtain verbal authorization from ATC to operate with the inoperative instrument
• CFile a Special Flight Permit (Ferry Permit) with the local FSDO prior to engine start
• DReplace the instrument immediately; Part 91 flights cannot depart with any inoperative eq…

What is the operational meaning of a 'VFR-on-Top' clearance issued by ATC under 14 CFR 91.179?

• AThe flight is conducted on an IFR flight plan, but the pilot must maintain VFR cloud clea…
• BThe pilot has canceled the IFR flight plan and is operating solely under visual flight ru…
• CThe flight is restricted to Class VFR airspace and does not require compliance with ATC r…
• DThe pilot may fly through overcast cloud layers without adhering to IFR position reporting

When operating on an IFR flight plan with a VFR-on-Top clearance in level cruising flight below 18,000 feet MSL, what altitude must the pilot select based on magnetic course?

• AAppropriate VFR cruising altitude (Odd thousands + 500 ft for 0°–179°; Even thousands + 5…
• BAssigned IFR cardinal altitude (Odd thousands for East; Even thousands for West)
• CAny altitude requested by the pilot, regardless of magnetic course
• DMinimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) plus exactly 1,000 feet

How does 'VFR-on-Top' differ from 'VFR Over-the-Top' under FAA regulations?

• AVFR-on-Top is an IFR clearance allowing VFR altitude selection in VFR conditions; VFR Ove…
• BVFR-on-Top applies to commercial operators; VFR Over-the-Top applies to private pilots
• CVFR Over-the-Top requires an IFR flight plan; VFR-on-Top does not
• DThere is no operational difference; the terms are synonymous under 14 CFR Part 91

Under 14 CFR 61.51(g), when logging instrument flight time for currency, what details must be entered in the pilot's logbook?

• ALocation and type of each instrument approach accomplished, and name of safety pilot if s…
• BName of ATC controller issuing clearances and radar vector heading commands
• CBarometric pressure and ambient temperature at each initial approach fix
• DExact Hobbs time spent on each individual leg of the approach

Under 14 CFR 91.211, what supplemental oxygen requirement applies to flight crew members in unpressurized aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL?

• ARequired for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes d…
• BRequired continuously for the entire duration of flight above 12,500 feet MSL
• CRequired only for operations at night or during IMC conditions
• DOptional for flight crew but mandatory for all passengers

Where is ADS-B Out equipment mandatory under 14 CFR 91.225 in US National Airspace?

• AClass A, B, and C airspace, within 30 NM of Class B primary airports (Mode C veil), and a…
• BIn all controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, and E) from surface to FL600
• COnly in Class A airspace above FL180 and international oceanic routes
• DOnly when operating under IFR flight plans within radar coverage

When operating IFR in controlled airspace NOT in radar contact, what information must be included in a compulsory position report to ATC?

• AIdentification, Position, Time, Altitude, ETA and name of next reporting point, and name…
• BAircraft weight, groundspeed, fuel remaining, and ambient temperature
• CDeparture airport, destination airport, transponder code, and safety pilot name
• DIndicated airspeed, true airspeed, altimeter setting, and wind vector

Which of the following occurrences requires an IMMEDIATE report to ATC at all times while operating on an IFR flight plan?

• AAny unforecast weather condition encountered or safety-of-flight equipment malfunction
• BA change in true airspeed of 3 knots or 2% from filed speed
• CPassing each 1,000-foot altitude interval during a standard climb
• DReaching a intermediate VOR waypoint when under radar contact

Under 14 CFR 91.187, what action must the pilot in command take if navigation equipment (such as VOR, ILS, or RNAV) fails while operating IFR in controlled airspace?

• ANotify ATC immediately, including aircraft identification, equipment affected, and degree…
• BLand at the nearest suitable VFR airfield within 30 minutes without contacting ATC
• CSquawk 7600 on the transponder and execute a 180-degree turn back to departure
• DLog the failure in the aircraft logbook upon landing with no requirement for immediate AT…

Under 14 CFR 91.207, operational testing of an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) on 121.5 MHz is permitted only:

• ADuring the first 5 minutes after any hour, for no more than 3 audio sweeps
• BAt any time provided ATC is notified on ground control prior to testing
• CDuring the last 5 minutes of any hour for up to 1 minute
• DOnly by certified avionics technicians inside a shielded hangar

Which inspections are mandatory for an aircraft operated under IFR in controlled airspace?

• AAnnual inspection (12 cal mo), Altimeter/Static system (24 cal mo), Transponder (24 cal m…
• BAnnual inspection (12 cal mo), 100-hour inspection (all Part 91 flights), and VOR check (…
• CPitot-static inspection (12 cal mo), Transponder (12 cal mo), and ELT (24 cal mo)
• DFlight review (24 cal mo), IPC (6 cal mo), and Annual inspection (24 cal mo)

Under 14 CFR 91.171, what is the maximum permissible bearing error when conducting an airborne VOR operational check over a designated airborne checkpoint?

• A±6 degrees
• B±4 degrees
• C±2 degrees
• D±8 degrees

Under 14 CFR 91.411, how frequently must the altimeter, altitude reporting equipment, and static pressure system be tested and inspected for IFR operations in controlled airspace?

• AWithin the preceding 24 calendar months
• BWithin the preceding 12 calendar months
• CWithin the preceding 100 hours of flight time
• DWithin the preceding 36 calendar months

What takeoff minimums apply to a civil aircraft operating under 14 CFR Part 91 (general aviation) departing an airport under IFR?

• AThere are no regulatory takeoff minimums for Part 91 operations unless specified by publi…
• BStandard takeoff minimums of 1 statute mile for 1-2 engine aircraft apply to all Part 91…
• CTakeoff minimums must equal the lowest landing minimums for the airport's active precisio…
• DTakeoff is prohibited whenever visibility is less than 1/2 statute mile regardless of ope…

Under 14 CFR 91.173, what two requirements must be satisfied prior to operating an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR?

• AFile an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance
• BObtain a weather briefing from FSS and log an entry in the aircraft logbook
• CSet the altimeter to 29.92 inHg and conduct a dual VOR check
• DFile an IFR flight plan and obtain approval from the airport manager

How is an IFR flight plan closed after landing at an airport with an operational control tower compared to a non-towered airport in the US?

• AAt towered airports, ATC automatically closes the flight plan upon landing; at non-towere…
• BAt both towered and non-towered airports, the flight plan is automatically closed by rada…
• CThe pilot must call FSS within 1 hour after landing regardless of whether the tower is op…
• DAt towered airports, the pilot must call FSS by phone; at non-towered airports, the tower…

What are the minimum flight requirements to obtain a Special VFR (SVFR) clearance to operate at night within Class B, C, D, or E surface areas under 14 CFR 91.157?

• A1 statute mile flight visibility, clear of clouds, pilot instrument-rated, and aircraft e…
• B3 statute miles flight visibility, 1,000 ft ceiling, and standard VFR equipment
• C5 statute miles flight visibility, clear of clouds, and multi-engine aircraft rating
• DSpecial VFR is completely prohibited at night in all US airspace under any circumstances

Which major regulatory difference exists between FAA 14 CFR Part 91 and EASA Part-NCO regarding IFR alternate airport selection rules?

• AFAA requires evaluating weather 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA (1-2-3 rule), whereas E…
• BFAA requires two alternate airports for every IFR flight plan regardless of weather
• CEASA Part-NCO does not permit selecting an alternate without a ILS Category III approach
• DFAA 14 CFR Part 91 requires alternate airports to be within 15 NM of the destination

What are the vertical boundaries of Class A airspace in the contiguous United States, and what flight rules apply within it?

• A18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600; IFR flight plan and ATC clearance required for…
• B10,000 feet MSL up to FL450; VFR on Top and IFR allowed
• C14,500 feet MSL up to FL600; IFR only above 18,000 feet and VFR allowed below
• DFL180 up to UNLIMITED; IFR operations only with no altimeter setting changes

What specific phraseology must a pilot receive before entering Class B airspace under IFR or VFR in the US?

• AFor VFR: 'Cleared into Class B airspace'; for IFR: an IFR clearance routed through Class…
• BBoth VFR and IFR flights must hear the exact words 'Cleared into Class B airspace' on eve…
• CEstablishing two-way radio contact using the aircraft call sign automatically grants entr…
• DClass B entry is granted automatically whenever operating above 3,000 feet AGL

What radio communication requirement must be satisfied prior to entering Class C airspace under VFR or IFR?

• AEstablish two-way radio communication with the ATC facility providing air traffic service…
• BObtain an explicit clearance stating 'Cleared to enter Class C airspace'
• CSet the transponder code to 1200 and broadcast position on CTAF
• DFile a Special Class C flight plan with FSS 30 minutes prior

What is the maximum indicated airspeed permitted by 14 CFR 91.117 when operating an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport in Class C or Class D airspace?

• A200 knots
• B250 knots
• C180 knots
• D160 knots

In Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL, what are the basic VFR weather minimums (ceiling/cloud clearance and visibility)?

• A3 statute miles visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal f…
• B5 statute miles visibility; 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 statute mile horizo…
• C1 statute mile visibility; clear of clouds
• D3 statute miles visibility; 1,000 feet clear of clouds in all directions

In US IFR operations, what items are represented by the standard ATC clearance shorthand acronym 'C-R-A-F-T'?

• AClearance limit, Route, Altitude, Frequency, Transponder code
• BCourse, Runway, Altitude, Fuel reserve, Time departure
• CClearance limit, Radar vectors, Approach procedure, Frequency, Tower contact
• DCategory, Route, Assigned heading, Fix, Transition point

When receiving an IFR departure clearance at a non-towered airport with a 'Clearance Void Time', what action must the pilot take if the aircraft has not departed by the void time?

• ADo not depart; advise ATC as soon as possible, and no later than 30 minutes after the voi…
• BDepart immediately under VFR and request an IFR popup clearance airborne
• CDepart within 15 minutes of the void time without re-contacting ATC
• DHold on the taxiway indefinitely until ATC calls back on CTAF

What is the operational significance of an Expect Further Clearance (EFC) time issued by ATC when an aircraft enters a holding pattern?

• AIt establishes the exact time the pilot may commence descent and approach in the event of…
• BIt represents the deadline by which the pilot must declare a fuel emergency
• CIt indicates when the pilot must turn off the transponder
• DIt specifies the exact moment the aircraft will be handed off to ground control

Under 14 CFR 91.185, if two-way radio communication fails in IMC, what altitude should the pilot fly for each leg of the route?

• AThe HIGHEST of: Minimum IFR altitude (MEA/MOCA), Expected altitude in further clearance,…
• BThe LOWEST of: Minimum IFR altitude, Expected altitude, or Assigned altitude
• CThe exact Assigned altitude regardless of higher MEAs along the route
• DCruising at FL180 to guarantee radar coverage and obstacle clearance

Under 14 CFR 91.185, in what order of priority must a pilot select the ROUTE to fly during two-way radio communications failure in IMC?

• AAssigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed (AVE-F)
• BFiled, Expected, Vectored, Assigned
• CVectored, Assigned, Filed, Expected
• DExpected, Filed, Assigned, Direct to destination

During lost communications under 14 CFR 91.185, if the clearance limit is an Initial Approach Fix (IAF) and an EFC time has been received, when should the pilot begin descent and approach?

• AAs close as possible to the EFC time
• BAs close as possible to the ETA calculated from filed/amended flight plan
• CImmediately upon reaching the IAF regardless of time
• D30 minutes after passing the IAF

What is the operational distinction between an Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) and a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) in US IFR departures?

• AODPs provide obstacle clearance and may be flown without ATC clearance (unless another pr…
• BODPs require an explicit ATC clearance; SIDs are optional graphic procedures flown at pil…
• CODPs are only published in graphic chart format; SIDs are strictly textual procedures
• DSIDs provide terrain clearance only; ODPs provide airspace separation from commercial jets

What is the standard IFR climb gradient requirement for instrument departures unless a steeper gradient is explicitly published on the procedure?

• A200 feet per nautical mile
• B150 feet per nautical mile
• C300 feet per nautical mile
• D500 feet per minute

An aircraft departing on an IFR flight plan maintains a groundspeed of 120 knots during the climb. The published Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) mandates a minimum climb gradient of 300 feet per nautical mile. What is the required rate of climb in feet per minute (fpm)?

• A400 fpm
• B500 fpm
• C600 fpm
• D750 fpm

When ATC issues a clearance to 'Descend Via' a Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR), what is the pilot authorized to do?

• ANavigate laterally along the STAR route and vertically comply with all published speed an…
• BDescend immediately to the lowest published minimum altitude on the entire STAR at pilot…
• CMaintain published lateral routing but remain at assigned altitude until given specific n…
• DCancel IFR flight plan automatically upon crossing the STAR entry fix

What is the standard transition altitude in the US National Airspace System where pilots must set their altimeters to 29.92 inHg (1013.2 hPa)?

• A18,000 feet MSL (FL180)
• B10,000 feet MSL
• C14,000 feet MSL
• DVariable by airport depending on local QNH and atmospheric temperature

What airspace altitude boundaries define Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) in the United States, and what vertical separation is provided?

• AFL290 through FL410 inclusive; provides 1,000 feet vertical separation between RVSM-appro…
• B18,000 ft MSL through FL290; provides 500 feet vertical separation
• CFL410 through FL600; provides 1,000 feet vertical separation
• DFL240 through FL350; provides 2,000 feet vertical separation

What is the maximum indicated airspeed permitted by 14 CFR 91.117(a) when operating an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL in the United States?

• A250 knots
• B200 knots
• C280 knots
• D300 knots