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Key Facts: Instrument Rating Exam

75-85%

First-Time Pass Rate

Industry estimate

70%

Passing Score

42/60 questions

40-60 hrs

Ground Study Time

Recommended

$175

Exam Fee

FAA/PSI

40 hrs

Instrument Time Required

FAR 61.65

60

Questions

2.5 hours

The FAA Instrument Rating Airplane (IRA) knowledge test has an estimated 75-85% first-time pass rate. It requires 70% (42/60 questions) to pass. The 60-question exam covers IFR regulations, weather theory, aircraft instruments, IFR navigation, approach procedures (precision and non-precision), ATC procedures, and flight planning. The instrument rating requires 50 hours of cross-country PIC time and 40 hours of instrument time. Plan for 40-60 hours of ground study.

Sample Instrument Rating Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Instrument Rating exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 256+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1What is the minimum fuel reserve required for an IFR flight when no alternate is required?
A.30 minutes beyond the planned flight time at normal cruise speed
B.45 minutes beyond the planned flight time at normal cruise speed
C.Fuel to fly to the destination, then to the alternate, plus 45 minutes
D.Fuel to fly to the destination at cruise power for 1 hour
Explanation: According to 14 CFR 91.167, when no alternate airport is required, an IFR flight must carry enough fuel (considering wind and forecast weather) to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing and fly thereafter for at least 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. (If an alternate is required, fuel must also cover flight to that alternate before the 45-minute reserve.)
2For an airplane IFR flight under Part 91, with no special ATC authorization, when must the flight plan include an alternate airport?
A.Unless the destination has an approved instrument approach and satisfies both the 2,000-foot ceiling and 3-SM visibility thresholds throughout ETA minus 1 hour to ETA plus 1 hour
B.Only when destination weather is below the published landing minimums at ETA
C.Only when destination weather is below 600-2 or 800-2 at ETA
D.For every flight, even when the destination qualifies for the no-alternate exception
Explanation: Under 14 CFR 91.169(a)(2) and (b), an airplane IFR flight plan must include an alternate unless the destination has a Part 97 standard instrument approach or an FAA-issued special approach for the operator, and reports or forecasts indicate a ceiling of at least 2,000 feet above airport elevation AND visibility of at least 3 statute miles throughout the period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA. Failure of either weather threshold requires an alternate. Destination landing minimums and the alternate airport weather minimums in 91.169(c) are separate tests.
3What are the standard alternate airport minimums for an airport with a precision approach?
A.300-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility
B.400-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility
C.600-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility
D.800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility
Explanation: Under 14 CFR 91.169(c)(1)(i), use the published alternate minimums; if none are specified, the airplane standards are a 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility for a precision approach, or an 800-foot ceiling and 2 SM for a nonprecision approach, at the alternate ETA. LPV is not automatically eligible for 600-2: AIM 1-1-18 requires WAAS alternate planning using the applicable LNAV or circling minima and nonprecision weather requirements, subject to published restrictions.
4A pilot plans a Part 91 IFR flight in an airplane from ABC to XYZ. From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, the forecast at XYZ is a broken ceiling 1,500 feet above airport elevation and visibility 4 statute miles. XYZ has a published ILS approach with landing minimums of 200 feet and 1/2 SM. Is an alternate required?
A.Yes, because the ceiling is below 2,000 feet
B.Yes, because visibility is less than 5 miles
C.No, because both ceiling and visibility are forecast to be above landing minimums
D.Yes, because the ceiling is below 3,000 feet
Explanation: Yes. Under 14 CFR 91.169(b)(1) and (b)(2)(i), the no-alternate exception for an airplane requires an approved destination instrument approach and a forecast ceiling of at least 2,000 feet above airport elevation AND visibility of at least 3 SM throughout ETA minus 1 hour to ETA plus 1 hour. The 1,500-foot ceiling fails that regulatory test even though visibility is 4 SM and weather is above the ILS landing minimums. The 1-2-3 rule is a regulatory requirement, not merely a planning guideline.
5When selecting an alternate airport, what minimums apply if the airport has only a VOR approach?
A.200-foot ceiling and 1/2 mile visibility
B.600-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility
C.800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility
D.1,000-foot ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility
Explanation: Under 14 CFR 91.169(c)(1)(i), use the published alternate minimums; if none are specified, the airplane standards are a 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility for a precision approach, or an 800-foot ceiling and 2 SM for a nonprecision approach, at the alternate ETA. LPV is not automatically eligible for 600-2: AIM 1-1-18 requires WAAS alternate planning using the applicable LNAV or circling minima and nonprecision weather requirements, subject to published restrictions.
6What weather information should a pilot consider when planning an IFR cross-country flight?
A.Only the destination airport METAR
B.Weather charts, METARs, TAFs, SIGMETs, AIRMETs, and PIREPs along the entire route
C.Only the TAF for the departure and destination airports
D.Only surface analysis charts
Explanation: IFR flight planning requires comprehensive weather analysis including surface analysis charts, constant pressure charts, significant weather prognostic charts, METARs, TAFs, SIGMETs, AIRMETs, and PIREPs. Pilots must check weather along the entire route of flight, not just at departure and destination, to identify hazards like thunderstorms, icing, turbulence, and wind shear.
7Under Part 91, must an airplane pilot always select an IFR alternate with a precision approach?
A.For all IFR flights
B.When the destination has only non-precision approaches available
C.When the destination weather is forecast to be below precision approach minimums
D.A pilot is never required to use an alternate with a precision approach
Explanation: No. A usable nonprecision procedure may qualify with the applicable alternate weather minimums under 14 CFR 91.169(c)(1)(i). Even an airport without a published or operator-issued special instrument approach may qualify under 91.169(c)(2) if forecast conditions at the alternate ETA permit descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR. Equipment, procedure availability, and published restrictions must also be checked.
8What is the purpose of a VOR equipment check before an IFR flight?
A.To verify the VOR receiver meets the 14 CFR 91.171 accuracy requirements
B.To check the audio quality of the identifier
C.To test the DME function
D.To verify GPS accuracy
Explanation: 14 CFR 91.171 requires that VOR equipment be checked for accuracy within the preceding 30 days before IFR flight. The maximum permissible error is plus or minus 4 degrees. This can be accomplished using a VOR test facility (VOT), a ground checkpoint, a dual VOR cross-check, or comparing against a known accurate receiver.
9A VOR receiver check using a VOT indicates the bearing is 180° TO. What is the acceptable range?
A.176° to 184°
B.178° to 182°
C.175° to 185°
D.170° to 190°
Explanation: When using a VOR test facility (VOT), the CDI should center with a FROM indication on the 180° radial (or TO indication on the 360° radial) with plus or minus 4 degrees error. For a VOT bearing of 180° TO, the acceptable range is 176° to 184° (180° ± 4°).
10What altitude should be selected for an IFR flight in Class A airspace?
A.Any altitude the pilot requests
B.The altitude assigned by ATC
C.The MEA of the airway being flown
D.FL180 or above
Explanation: In Class A airspace (above 18,000 feet MSL to FL600), pilots must operate on an IFR flight plan and on an ATC clearance. All altitudes are assigned by ATC; pilots cannot select their own cruising altitude. ATC will assign altitudes that meet minimum en route altitude (MEA) requirements and provide separation from other traffic.

About the Instrument Rating Exam

The FAA Instrument Rating Airplane (IRA) knowledge test is required for pilots seeking to fly under instrument flight rules (IFR). The exam covers IFR regulations, weather theory, flight instruments, instrument navigation, approach procedures, ATC communications, and flight planning for IFR operations.

Exam sponsor: FAA / PSI. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Questions

60 questions

Time Limit

2.5 hours

Passing Score

70%

Exam / Certification Fees

$175

Exam sponsor website

Reported exam pass rate: 75-85%. for first-time test-takers This describes exam candidates, not OpenExamPrep users or results from using our resources. Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

18%

IFR Regulations

Part 61 instrument rating requirements, Part 91 IFR rules, equipment requirements (91.205), alternate airport requirements, fuel requirements, currency (6 approaches/6 months)

18%

Weather Theory and Services

Icing conditions, thunderstorms, wind shear, fog formation, METARs, TAFs, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, PIREPs, convective outlooks, and weather charts

15%

Aircraft Instruments and Systems

Pitot-static system, gyroscopic instruments, compass errors, instrument markings, glass cockpit displays, GPS, and autopilot systems

18%

IFR Navigation

VOR, ILS, GPS/RNAV navigation, DME arcs, holding patterns (standard and nonstandard), airways, MEA, MOCA, MRA, and OROCA

18%

Instrument Approach Procedures

Precision approaches (ILS, GLS), non-precision approaches (VOR, GPS, NDB), approach minimums (DA vs MDA), missed approach procedures, circling approaches, RNAV approaches

13%

ATC Procedures and Flight Planning

IFR clearances, clearance delivery, departure procedures, en route procedures, holding instructions, lost communications (91.185), IFR flight planning, and fuel calculations

Preparing for the Instrument Rating Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 70%
  • Exam length: 60 questions
  • Time limit: 2.5 hours
  • Exam / certification fees: $175 Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 256 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Instrument Rating: Suggested Study Strategy

1Master instrument approach plate interpretation - understand minimums, missed approach procedures, and notes
2Memorize the lost communications rule (91.185) - route: AVE-F, altitude: highest of assigned/expected/MEA
3Study weather theory thoroughly - icing, thunderstorm avoidance, and weather product interpretation
4Know holding pattern entries (direct, teardrop, parallel) and standard vs nonstandard holding
5Understand the differences between DA (decision altitude) and MDA (minimum descent altitude)
6Review IFR equipment requirements under 91.205(d) and GRAB CARD mnemonic

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the Instrument Rating knowledge test?

The FAA Instrument Rating Airplane (IRA) knowledge test contains 60 multiple-choice questions. You have 2.5 hours to complete the exam and need 70% (42 correct answers) to pass. The exam is administered at PSI testing centers.

What is the Instrument Rating knowledge test pass rate?

The FAA IRA knowledge test has an estimated pass rate of 75-85% for first-time test-takers. The exam tests IFR procedures, weather, navigation, and approach procedures. With thorough ground study and 200+ practice questions, most well-prepared candidates pass on the first attempt.

What are the aeronautical experience requirements for an Instrument Rating?

To earn an instrument rating, you need: 1) 50 hours of cross-country PIC time (minimum 10 hours in airplanes), 2) 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time, 3) A 250 NM cross-country flight under IFR with 3 different approaches at 3 airports, 4) An instructor endorsement for the knowledge test and practical test. Training through Part 141 programs may have reduced hour requirements.

How long should I study for the Instrument Rating knowledge test?

Plan for 40-60 hours of dedicated ground study over 4-6 weeks. Focus on IFR regulations, weather theory, instrument approach procedures, and navigation. The FAA Instrument Flying Handbook and Instrument Procedures Handbook are essential study references. Complete at least 200 practice questions and aim for 80%+ consistently before scheduling your exam.

What does the lost communication rule (91.185) require?

If you lose radio communications while IFR, you should: 1) Set transponder to 7600, 2) Continue the route: assigned → vectored → expected → filed, 3) Continue at the altitude: assigned → expected → MEA (whichever is highest), 4) Leave the clearance limit: if you have an approach, begin the approach at the EFC time or the ETA from the filed flight plan (whichever is later). Remember the acronym: AVE-F for route (Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed).

What instrument currency is required to fly IFR?

To act as PIC under IFR, you must have performed and logged within the preceding 6 calendar months: 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures and tasks, and intercepting/tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems. If currency lapses, you must complete an instrument proficiency check (IPC) with an authorized instructor or examiner.