FAA A&P Exam Flashcards

Q: How is the FAA A&P knowledge testing path structured?

The FAA mechanic path uses three separate computer-based multiple-choice knowledge tests: AMG (General), AMA (Airframe), and AMP (Powerplant). The October 22, 2025 Airman Knowledge Testing Matrix lists AMG at 60 questions, AMA at 100 questions, and AMP at 100 questions, with 2 hours allotted for each test. You must pass the applicable knowledge tests before moving to the oral and practical tests with a Designated Mechanic Examiner (DME).

Q: What score do I need to pass the FAA A&P written exams?

You need at least 70% on each individual knowledge test. The General, Airframe, and Powerplant tests are scored separately, so a strong score on one test does not offset a failing score on another. There is no single combined A&P written-test score. Each Airman Knowledge Test Report (AKTR) lists ACS subject-area codes for any questions missed so you can target weak areas before the oral and practical exam.

Q: What are the eligibility requirements for the FAA A&P mechanic certificate?

Applicants must be at least 18 years old and able to read, write, speak, and understand English. You qualify by experience or training: at least 18 months of practical experience for a single rating, at least 30 months of concurrent practical experience for both ratings, graduation from an FAA-certificated Aviation Maintenance Technician School (AMTS), or an eligible military pathway. You must also obtain an FAA Tracking Number (FTN) through IACRA before scheduling knowledge tests.

Q: What changed for FAA mechanic testing in 2026?

The FAA February 2026 Airman Testing Community Advisory announced that airman knowledge tests begin using embedded images on April 14, 2026, instead of relying only on a separate printed testing supplement booklet. No new 2026 mechanic-specific Aviation Mechanic Certification Standards (ACS) blueprint change was identified beyond that test-delivery update; the three-test AMG/AMA/AMP structure and 70% passing standard remained in effect.

Q: What is the retake policy if I fail an FAA A&P knowledge test?

If you fail a knowledge test, you may retest after 30 days. You may retest sooner only if you present a signed statement from an appropriately certificated person attesting that you received additional instruction in the deficient subject areas and are ready to retest. Only the failed test must be retaken; passing scores on the other knowledge tests are not affected.

Q: How long should I study for the FAA A&P knowledge tests?

Study time depends heavily on your background. Candidates from an FAA-certificated AMTS often spend roughly 80 to 120 focused review hours across the three tests, while experience-path applicants frequently need 120 to 180 hours to refresh structures, systems, engine theory, regulations, and recordkeeping. A common plan is to master General first because electrical, weight-and-balance, math, and records concepts recur throughout Airframe and Powerplant.

Question 1

AMG, AMA, and AMP Tests

Accepted Answer

The three FAA Aviation Maintenance Technician knowledge tests: AMG is General, AMA is Airframe, and AMP is Powerplant. They are separate tests with their own question counts and scores, not one combined A&P written test. All applicable tests must be passed before the oral and practical exam.

Question 2

Knowledge-Test Structure and Passing Standard

Accepted Answer

AMG has 60 questions, AMA has 100, and AMP has 100, with 2 hours allotted per test. Each test is scored independently and requires at least 70% to pass. A strong score on one test does not offset a failing score on another.

Question 3

Ohm's Law

Accepted Answer

Relates voltage, current, and resistance: E = I x R, so current I = E / R. Example: a 24-volt source across a 6-ohm load draws 4 amps. Always convert units and confirm the result is reasonable before trusting it.

Question 4

Series vs. Parallel Circuits

Accepted Answer

In a series circuit there is one current path, total resistance increases as resistors are added, and source voltage divides across the loads. In a parallel circuit total resistance is lower than the smallest branch, and each branch sees the full source voltage.

Question 5

Purpose of a Fuse or Circuit Breaker

Accepted Answer

Circuit protection is sized to protect the wiring from excessive current and prevent conductor overheating, not to protect the component at the end of the wire. A repeatedly opening breaker points to a short, overload, or wiring fault, not just a weak protective device.

Question 6

Impedance

Accepted Answer

In an AC circuit, impedance is the total opposition to current when both resistance and reactance are considered. Inductive and capacitive reactance add to resistance, so AC opposition cannot be evaluated with resistance alone.

Question 7

Safe Resistance and Continuity Measurement

Accepted Answer

Resistance and continuity are measured with circuit power removed because an ohmmeter uses its own internal source. Voltage is measured across (in parallel with) a component, and current is measured in series with the load path.

Question 8

American Wire Gauge (AWG)

Accepted Answer

In the AWG system a larger gauge number means a smaller conductor cross-section, and a smaller number means a larger wire. A higher number wire carries less current, so wire size selection must match the circuit load and approved data.

Question 9

Datum

Accepted Answer

In weight and balance, the datum is the reference point from which all horizontal arms are measured. It is selected by the manufacturer and may be located anywhere, including ahead of the aircraft. Arms forward of the datum are negative and arms aft are positive.

Question 10

Moment and Center of Gravity

Accepted Answer

Moment equals weight times arm. The center of gravity (CG) is total moment divided by total weight. CG must stay within the forward and aft limits from the type certificate data sheet for the loaded condition being analyzed.

Question 11

Effect of Adding Weight Aft

Accepted Answer

Adding or moving equipment aft of the existing CG shifts the center of gravity rearward; moving weight forward shifts it forward. Equipment changes that affect weight and balance require recalculation and an updated equipment list and records.

Question 12

Empty Weight and Useful Load

Accepted Answer

Empty weight includes the airframe, powerplant, fixed equipment, and unusable fuel and full operating fluids as defined for the aircraft. Useful load is maximum allowable weight minus empty weight; it is the weight available for crew, payload, usable fuel, and removable equipment.

Question 13

Torque from Force and Lever Arm

Accepted Answer

Torque equals applied force multiplied by the lever-arm length. A 60-pound force at the end of a 2-foot wrench produces 120 pound-feet. Using an unauthorized extension on a torque wrench without an approved correction changes the actual torque delivered.

Question 14

Drawing Tolerance

Accepted Answer

A toleranced dimension defines an acceptable range, not a single exact value. A 4.500-inch dimension with a tolerance of plus or minus 0.005 inch accepts any measurement from 4.495 to 4.505 inches. A part exactly at a limit is still acceptable.

Question 15

Drawing Effectivity

Accepted Answer

Effectivity identifies the models, serial-number ranges, or configurations to which a drawing or procedure applies. Using a correct-looking drawing for the wrong serial number can produce an unapproved repair or a wrong part installation, so effectivity and revision status must be confirmed first.

Question 16

Schematic vs. Installation Drawing

Accepted Answer

A system schematic shows functional relationships and how components connect, not exact physical location. To find and inspect the actual hardware you use installation drawings or the maintenance manual procedure for that aircraft.

Question 17

Galvanic Corrosion

Accepted Answer

Galvanic corrosion occurs when two dissimilar metals are in electrical contact in the presence of an electrolyte such as moisture. The more active (anodic) metal corrodes preferentially. Proper isolation, finishes, and sealants reduce the risk.

Question 18

Clad Aluminum (Alclad)

Accepted Answer

Clad aluminum has a thin layer of corrosion-resistant pure aluminum bonded over a stronger alloy core. The cladding sacrificially protects the core, so aggressive abrasion or excessive removal during corrosion repair exposes the core and reduces protection.

Question 19

AN Bolt Head Marking and Cotter Pin Reuse

Accepted Answer

A standard AN aircraft bolt typically has an identifying mark such as a raised dash or asterisk on the head. A cotter pin removed during maintenance is not reused because its legs are bent and the metal is fatigued; a new pin must be installed.

Question 20

Purpose of Safety Wire

Accepted Answer

Safety wire is installed to prevent fasteners or components from loosening or backing out, with the wire routed so any tendency to loosen tightens the wire. Distraction during a safety-wire task is a known error trap; the correct response is to verify the work before continuing.

Question 21

Rigid Fluid Line Slack (Bend Allowance)

Accepted Answer

A rigid metal fluid line is fabricated with a deliberate small bend or offset rather than installed dead straight so it can absorb vibration and thermal expansion without cracking. A straight, rigid run concentrates stress at the fittings.

Question 22

Flexible Hose Lay Line

Accepted Answer

The lay line is the printed stripe running along a flexible hose. If it appears spiraled or twisted after installation, the hose was installed with a twist, which causes early failure. A straight lay line indicates the hose is not twisted.

Question 23

14 CFR 43.9 Maintenance Record Entry

Accepted Answer

After maintenance, the record entry must include a description of the work performed (or reference to acceptable data), the date of completion, and the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work for return to service.

Question 24

Major Repair vs. Minor Repair

Accepted Answer

A major repair or alteration appreciably affects weight, balance, structural strength, performance, powerplant operation, or other airworthiness qualities, or is not done by accepted practices. Major work generally requires approved data and may require FAA Form 337; minor work may use acceptable data.

Question 25

Airworthiness Directive (AD) Status

Accepted Answer

An applicable AD is mandatory. If an applicable AD has not been complied with, the aircraft is unairworthy until compliance is accomplished. ADs may be one-time or recurring, and recurring intervals must be tracked in the permanent records.

Question 26

Unairworthy After 100-Hour or Annual Inspection

Accepted Answer

If an aircraft is found unairworthy during a required inspection, the person performing the inspection must give the owner or operator a signed and dated list of the discrepancies. The aircraft must not return to service until the discrepancies are corrected by an authorized person.

Question 27

Approved Data vs. Acceptable Data

Accepted Answer

Approved data (such as a TCDS, STC, AD, or FAA-approved instructions) is required for major repairs and major alterations when applicable. Acceptable data may support minor work where appropriate. Mechanics must use current, applicable data and confirm it before starting.

Question 28

Dye Penetrant vs. Volumetric NDT

Accepted Answer

Dye penetrant reveals surface-breaking defects on suitable nonporous materials and needs careful cleaning and dwell time. Subsurface or internal flaws instead require volumetric methods such as ultrasonic or radiographic inspection, so the method must match the expected defect.

Question 29

Tool Calibration Status

Accepted Answer

An uncalibrated or damaged precision tool can display a precise-looking but unreliable value. Before accepting a measurement, confirm the tool is suitable, undamaged, zeroed, within its calibration period, and used within its rated range.

Question 30

Effective Shift Turnover

Accepted Answer

A good human-factors turnover states what was completed, what remains open, which panels are removed, what safety devices are installed, and what assumptions must not be made. Vague statements like "almost done" cause duplicated work or missed steps.

Question 31

Tap Test on Bonded Honeycomb

Accepted Answer

Tapping a bonded honeycomb or composite panel and listening to the response screens for disbonds or delamination. A clear sharp ring suggests good bonding; a dull or dead sound suggests a disbond, delamination, or void requiring further inspection.

Question 32

Stop-Drilling a Crack

Accepted Answer

Drilling a small hole at the tip of a crack before a repair removes the sharp crack tip and blunts the stress concentration, slowing crack growth. It is a temporary or interim measure pending an approved structural repair, not a final fix by itself.

Question 33

Metal Fatigue vs. Single Overload

Accepted Answer

Fatigue results from repeated cyclic loading below ultimate strength and often shows progressive crack growth with characteristic beach marks. A single overload failure shows gross deformation or a rough, sudden fracture without progressive cracking.

Question 34

Smoking Rivet

Accepted Answer

A smoking rivet shows a gray or dark smudge trailing from the rivet, indicating it has worked loose and is moving in its hole. The loose rivet and elongated hole must be inspected and repaired with approved data, not just re-driven.

Question 35

Flush Rivets on External Surfaces

Accepted Answer

Flush (countersunk) rivets are used on external aerodynamic surfaces to reduce drag and maintain a smooth airflow profile. Protruding-head rivets are typically used where aerodynamic smoothness is not critical.

Question 36

Control Surface Balance and Flutter

Accepted Answer

Flight control surfaces are mass balanced within limits to prevent flutter, a destructive oscillation. Adding weight such as paint or an improper repair without rebalancing can move the balance out of limits and reduce the flutter margin.

Question 37

Torque Links and Oleo Strut Servicing

Accepted Answer

Torque links (scissors) keep the upper and lower oleo strut aligned while allowing extension and compression. An air-oil strut is serviced with the correct fluid to the specified level, then charged with dry nitrogen or air to the proper pressure or extension per the aircraft data.

Question 38

Spongy Brake Pedal

Accepted Answer

A spongy or soft pedal in a hydraulic brake system most commonly indicates air trapped in the system, because air is compressible while hydraulic fluid is not. The system must be bled per procedure after the air source is corrected.

Question 39

Mixing Hydraulic Fluids

Accepted Answer

Mineral-base and phosphate-ester hydraulic fluids must never be mixed because they are chemically incompatible and use different seal materials. The wrong fluid can swell, shrink, or destroy seals, often requiring major corrective action. Always confirm fluid type and seal compatibility.

Question 40

High-Pressure Hydraulic Leak Hazard

Accepted Answer

Fluid escaping from a high-pressure hydraulic leak can penetrate skin and cause serious injection injury. A suspected leak is never traced with bare hands; pressure is relieved and inspection follows the procedure unless a pressurized check is specifically required.

Question 41

Pitot-Static System and Pitot Heat

Accepted Answer

The pitot-static system supplies ram pressure to the airspeed indicator and static pressure to the airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator. Pitot heat prevents ice from blocking the pitot inlet, which would cause erroneous airspeed indications.

Question 42

Thermal Anti-Ice vs. Deice Boots

Accepted Answer

Thermal anti-ice (hot bleed air or electrical heat) prevents ice from forming on a surface, while pneumatic deice boots inflate to crack and shed ice that has already formed. Confusing the two leads to incorrect operation and inspection expectations.

Question 43

Fuel Tank Vents and Sumping

Accepted Answer

Tank vents keep tank pressure near ambient as fuel is used; a blocked vent lets vacuum build and progressively reduces fuel flow. Sumping the tank or strainer low point checks for water and sediment, since water settles below the denser aviation fuel.

Question 44

Bonding During Refueling

Accepted Answer

Aircraft and fueling equipment are electrically bonded before and during fueling to equalize static electrical potential and prevent a spark at the fuel point. Bonding is a fire-prevention requirement, not an optional step.

Question 45

Four-Stroke Cycle

Accepted Answer

A four-stroke reciprocating engine completes intake, compression, power, and exhaust in that order over two crankshaft revolutions. Intake draws in the charge, compression raises pressure, combustion drives the power stroke, and exhaust clears burned gases.

Question 46

Differential Compression Test

Accepted Answer

A differential compression test applies regulated air to a cylinder and compares the pressure held against the supply pressure. A large loss locates leakage past the intake valve, exhaust valve, or piston rings, heard at the induction, exhaust, or breather.

Question 47

Magneto P-Lead and No RPM Drop

Accepted Answer

A magneto is engine-driven and can spark without battery power; the P-lead grounds it when the switch is OFF. If a magneto check shows no RPM drop when one side is selected off, the magneto that should be grounded may still be live, a serious safety and airworthiness concern.

Question 48

Detonation vs. Preignition

Accepted Answer

Detonation is an uncontrolled, near-instantaneous burn of the remaining charge after normal ignition, causing knock and pressure spikes. Preignition is ignition before the spark from a hot spot. Both raise temperatures and can damage the engine; their causes differ.

Question 49

Turbine Engine Airflow Path

Accepted Answer

A gas turbine processes air through the inlet, compressor, diffuser, combustor, turbine, and exhaust. Pressure rises in the compressor, heat is added at roughly constant pressure in the combustor, and the turbine extracts energy to drive the compressor and accessories.

Question 50

Constant-Speed Propeller and Feathering

Accepted Answer

A constant-speed propeller uses a governor that changes blade pitch to hold the selected RPM as load and airspeed change. Feathering rotates the blades nearly parallel to the airflow to minimize drag and stop windmilling after an engine failure in flight.

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