Free RRB Section Controller Written CBT Exam Flashcards
Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the Railway Recruitment Boards Section Controller Written Computer-Based Test (CEN 03/2026). See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.
For an integer n > 1, how far must you test possible prime divisors to prove n is prime?
Up to √n, inclusive. If n is composite, at least one member of a factor pair is no larger than √n; testing only prime divisors in that range is sufficient.
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About These RRB Section Controller Written CBT Flashcards
These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the Railway Recruitment Boards Section Controller Written Computer-Based Test (CEN 03/2026). Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.
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Complete Flashcard Reference
Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.
For an integer n > 1, how far must you test possible prime divisors to prove n is prime?
Up to √n, inclusive. If n is composite, at least one member of a factor pair is no larger than √n; testing only prime divisors in that range is sufficient.
What identity links the HCF and LCM of two positive integers a and b?
HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b) = a × b. For 18 and 45, HCF = 9 and LCM = 90, so both products equal 810.
What test determines whether a nonnegative integer is divisible by 9?
Its digit sum must be divisible by 9. In base 10, each power of 10 leaves remainder 1 modulo 9, so the number and its digit sum have the same remainder.
When does a reduced fraction have a terminating decimal in base 10?
When its positive denominator has no prime factors other than 2 and 5. Such a denominator divides a power of 10; reduce the fraction before applying this test.
A total of 154 is divided in the ratio 4:7. What is the smaller share?
56. There are 11 equal ratio units, each worth 154 ÷ 11 = 14; the smaller share is 4 × 14.
What is the net percentage change after a 20% increase followed by a 20% decrease?
A 4% decrease. Multiply the factors: 1.20 × 0.80 = 0.96. Equal percentage increases and decreases use different bases and do not cancel.
After a 15% reduction, a price is ₹680. How do you recover its original price?
Divide by the retained fraction: ₹680 ÷ 0.85 = ₹800. Adding 15% to the reduced price would use the wrong base.
Twelve equally productive workers finish a fixed job in 15 days. How long would 20 workers take?
9 days: total work is 12 × 15 = 180 worker-days, then 180 ÷ 20 = 9. This assumes the same hours, productivity, and no interference between workers.
Which price is the denominator when calculating profit percentage?
Cost price: profit % = (selling price − cost price) ÷ cost price × 100. A ₹216 sale on a ₹180 cost gives 20% profit; dividing by selling price gives margin instead.
What single discount equals successive discounts of 20% and 5%?
24%. The retained price fraction is 0.80 × 0.95 = 0.76, so the discount is 1 − 0.76 = 0.24. Do not add the two discount rates.
Two groups have sizes 14 and 6 and means 30 and 45. What is their combined mean?
34.5: (14 × 30 + 6 × 45) ÷ 20 = 690 ÷ 20. Weight each mean by its group size.
What is the median of the ordered data 4, 9, 13, 20?
11. With an even number of observations, take the mean of the two middle values: (9 + 13) ÷ 2.
What does the mode of a data set identify?
The value or values with the highest frequency. It describes repetition, so it need not equal the arithmetic mean or the median.
How do you convert 72 km/h to m/s?
Multiply by 5/18: 72 × 5/18 = 20 m/s. The factor comes from 1,000 metres per kilometre and 3,600 seconds per hour.
Equal distances are travelled at 30 km/h and 60 km/h. What is the average speed?
40 km/h: for equal distances, average speed = 2uv ÷ (u + v). The slower leg takes more time, so the arithmetic mean of the speeds is unsuitable.
A 180 m train passes a 240 m platform at 14 m/s. How long until the entire train clears it?
30 seconds. The front must travel the train length plus the platform length: (180 + 240) ÷ 14 = 30.
Workers A and B can complete a job alone in 10 and 15 days. How long do they take together at constant rates?
6 days. Their combined daily rate is 1/10 + 1/15 = 1/6 of the job; invert that rate to get completion time.
One pipe fills a tank in 8 hours and a drain empties it in 12 hours. How long does simultaneous filling take from empty?
24 hours, assuming constant rates: net filling rate = 1/8 − 1/12 = 1/24 tank per hour. Subtract the drain rate rather than adding it.
How much energy is delivered by a constant 3 kW power output over 5 minutes?
900 kJ. Energy = power × time = 3 kJ/s × 300 s. Convert minutes to seconds before multiplying.
What value of x solves 3(x − 4) = 2x + 5?
x = 17. Expand to 3x − 12 = 2x + 5 and collect terms; checking gives 39 on both sides.
What is the nth term of an arithmetic progression with first term a and common difference d?
aₙ = a + (n − 1)d. There are n − 1 steps from the first term to the nth term, not n steps.
How do you find the sum of the first n terms of an arithmetic progression?
Sₙ = n[2a + (n − 1)d]/2, where a is the first term and d the common difference. For a = 3, d = 4, n = 6, the sum is 78.
A triangle has base 14 cm and perpendicular height 9 cm. What is its area?
63 cm²: area = ½ × base × perpendicular height. Use the perpendicular height, not a sloping side, and report square units.
What is the volume of a right circular cylinder with radius 3 cm and height 10 cm?
90π cm³: V = πr²h = π × 3² × 10. The radius is squared; volume uses cubic units.
If every length in two similar shapes differs by scale factor k, how do their areas compare?
The area scale factor is k². Doubling all lengths multiplies area by 4 because both independent length dimensions scale.
A bag holds 3 green and 7 black balls, each equally likely to be drawn. What is the probability of green?
3/10. For equally likely outcomes, probability = favourable outcomes ÷ total outcomes; here the total is 10 balls.
A sector occupies 54° of a pie chart. What percentage of the whole does it represent?
15%: 54 ÷ 360 × 100. A complete pie chart represents 360° and 100% of the same total.
In a survey, 32 people use service A, 18 use B, and 7 use both. How many use at least one?
43. Use inclusion–exclusion: 32 + 18 − 7. Subtract the overlap once because adding the two group counts counted it twice.
Is a rectangle’s perimeter of 20 cm sufficient to determine its area?
No. It fixes length + width = 10 cm, but a 1 × 9 rectangle has area 9 cm² and a 4 × 6 rectangle has area 24 cm². More information is needed.
Does an upward trend in a scatter plot prove that one variable causes the other?
No. It can show association, but confounding, reverse causation, or chance may explain it. A causal claim needs additional evidence beyond the plotted trend.
When is the inclusive binary statement P OR Q true?
When at least one of P and Q is true, including when both are true. Exclusive OR instead requires exactly one to be true.
All engineers are graduates, and all graduates are adults. What universal conclusion follows?
All engineers are adults. Chaining the two set inclusions proves that statement; the premises do not by themselves assert that any engineers exist.
What is the smaller angle between an analogue clock’s hands at 3:20?
20°. The minute hand is at 120° from 12; the hour hand has advanced to 90° + 10° = 100°. Remember that the hour hand moves continuously.
What is the Gregorian leap-year rule for a century year?
It must be divisible by 400. The ordinary divisible-by-4 rule has a century exception: 1900 was common, while 2000 was a leap year.
X is Y’s brother, and Y is Z’s mother. What is X’s relationship to Z?
Maternal uncle. Y links X to Z through Z’s mother; draw the generations before deciding the relationship.
Four files A, B, C, D must be ordered. A is immediately before C, C is before D, and D is before B. What order is forced?
A, C, D, B. The clues form one chain; the immediate A–C condition is satisfied in that order.
In an argument, what makes a premise an assumption rather than a stated fact?
It is an unstated premise the reasoning relies on. Identify the missing link between the stated evidence and conclusion, rather than importing an unrelated belief.
A passage says: “An extra shift raised output, but errors also increased. Supervisors will test a checklist before adding more shifts.” What is its main idea?
Expansion needs a quality safeguard as well as higher output. The checklist proposal responds to the tension between increased production and increased errors.
A passage reports tests on wooden beams, then claims the results apply to every building material. Which part goes beyond the evidence?
The claim about every building material. Evidence limited to wooden beams does not establish results for concrete, steel, or other materials.
An author calls a new system a “promising experiment” but its results “preliminary.” What tone do those words suggest?
Cautiously optimistic. “Promising” expresses hope, while “experiment” and “preliminary” withhold a firm claim of proven success.
Complete the tool-to-measure analogy: compass is to direction as thermometer is to what?
Temperature. Preserve the relationship between an instrument and what it measures.
Complete the part-to-whole analogy: petal is to flower as page is to what?
Book. Both pairs connect a component to the whole it belongs to.
Under the pattern of successive differences 5, 7, 9, …, what follows 3, 8, 15, 24?
35. The next difference is 11, so add 11 to 24. Check the differences instead of guessing from the terms’ size.
Under an alternating-subsequence pattern, what follows 4, 15, 8, 12, 12, 9?
16. Odd-position terms are 4, 8, 12, 16; even-position terms are 15, 12, 9, decreasing by 3.
A code shifts every letter three places forward, wrapping after Z. How is CODE written?
FRGH: C→F, O→R, D→G, E→H. Apply the same shift separately to each letter.
Under A=1, B=2, …, Z=26 with codes formed by adding letter values, what is the code for RAIL?
40: R = 18, A = 1, I = 9, L = 12, giving 18 + 1 + 9 + 12. The stated rule is addition, not concatenation.
One person is 9th from the front and 16th from the back of the same queue. How many people are there?
24: 9 + 16 − 1. Subtract one because both ranks count that same person.
In a row of 31 people, someone is 17th from the left. What is their position from the right?
15th: 31 − 17 + 1. The extra one includes the person whose rank is being measured.
In a circular arrangement with everyone facing the centre, is a person’s immediate left clockwise or anticlockwise?
Clockwise. For a person at the top of the circle facing inward (south), left points east, toward the next clockwise seat. Facing outward reverses the rule.
How does “immediately left of” differ from “somewhere left of” in a row-arrangement clue?
Immediately left requires adjacent positions; somewhere left requires only an earlier position. Do not impose adjacency when the clue does not state it.
Frequently Asked Questions
Which Section Controller exam do these cards cover?
They cover the written CBT syllabus in CEN 03/2026. The official table gives an indicative 60 analytical/mathematical, 20 logical, and 20 mental-reasoning questions; the actual paper may vary. These 50 independent cards use a 30/10/10 distribution.
How long is the written CBT, and how is it marked?
It has 100 objective multiple-choice questions in 120 minutes, each worth 1 mark. Each wrong answer deducts one-third of a mark. RRB normalizes CBT scores when the test is held in multiple shifts; approved compensatory time follows the notification.
Do the minimum qualifying percentages guarantee selection?
No. The CBT eligibility minimums are UR/EWS 40%, OBC-NCL/SC 30%, and ST 25%, including Ex-servicemen according to community. The notification permits a conditional 2-mark relaxation for PwBD shortages against reserved vacancies. Shortlisting still depends on merit.
Is the later CBAT the same as this written CBT?
No. Shortlisted candidates take a separate Computer Based Aptitude Test. Each CBAT battery requires at least a T-score of 42, without category relaxation, and CBAT has no negative marking. Among CBAT qualifiers, final merit uses 70% CBT and 30% CBAT marks.
What qualification and age date does CEN 03/2026 use?
A recognized graduate degree or equivalent is required by the application closing date; candidates awaiting final results are ineligible. Standard age is 20–33 as of July 1, 2026, with category-specific relaxations. Consult the official notice for citizenship, medical, and document conditions.
Can I book a retake after a fixed number of days?
CEN 03/2026 describes a recruitment cycle with dates fixed by RRB; it does not publish a candidate-booked retake interval or a three-failure waiting rule. Only one application to one RRB is permitted under the notification.
May I use a calculator for the written CBT?
The notification lists calculators among prohibited items at the test centre. Practise the arithmetic and unit conversions without a calculator, and follow the current e-call letter instructions.
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