RRB NTPC Exam Flashcards

Q: How many questions are on RRB NTPC CBT 1?

CBT 1 has 100 objective multiple-choice questions: 40 General Awareness, 30 Mathematics, and 30 General Intelligence & Reasoning. The standard time limit is 90 minutes.

Q: Is there negative marking in RRB NTPC?

Yes. One-third of the mark allotted to a question is deducted for each wrong answer in CBT 1 and CBT 2. Unattempted questions do not carry a penalty.

Q: Does every RRB NTPC candidate take CBAT or typing?

No. CBAT applies to posts such as Station Master and Traffic Assistant. Typing Skill Test applies to clerical or typist posts. Other posts move from CBT stages to document verification and medical examination.

Question 1

RRB NTPC selection stages

Accepted Answer

The common path is CBT 1, CBT 2, then a post-specific CBAT or Typing Skill Test where required, followed by document verification and medical examination.

Question 2

CBT 1 section split

Accepted Answer

CBT 1 has 100 questions: 40 General Awareness, 30 Mathematics, and 30 General Intelligence & Reasoning. Each question carries 1 mark.

Question 3

CBT 2 section split

Accepted Answer

CBT 2 has 120 questions: 50 General Awareness, 35 Mathematics, and 35 General Intelligence & Reasoning. It is usually more decisive for merit than CBT 1.

Question 4

Negative marking rule

Accepted Answer

For each wrong answer in CBT 1 or CBT 2, one-third of the mark for that question is deducted. Leaving a question blank avoids the penalty.

Question 5

Minimum qualifying marks

Accepted Answer

Local metadata lists minimums as 40% for UR/EWS, 30% for OBC-NCL and SC, and 25% for ST. Final cut-offs vary by category, zone, post, and vacancies.

Question 6

Score normalisation

Accepted Answer

RRB uses normalisation when exams run in multiple shifts. It adjusts scores for shift-level difficulty differences before preparing merit lists.

Question 7

CBAT requirement

Accepted Answer

The Computer Based Aptitude Test is post-specific, notably for Station Master and Traffic Assistant. It is qualifying in each test battery and contributes to final merit for those posts.

Question 8

Typing Skill Test requirement

Accepted Answer

Typing applies only to designated clerical or typist posts. The local metadata records qualifying speeds of 30 wpm in English or 25 wpm in Hindi.

Question 9

General Awareness priority

Accepted Answer

General Awareness is the largest section in both CBT stages. It rewards steady revision across current affairs, railways, polity, history, geography, economy, science, and static GK.

Question 10

Father of Indian Railways

Accepted Answer

Lord Dalhousie is commonly linked with the introduction of railways in India. Remember him with the first passenger railway era in the 1850s.

Question 11

First passenger train in India

Accepted Answer

India's first passenger train ran on 16 April 1853 between Bori Bunder in Mumbai and Thane. This is a core railway-history fact.

Question 12

Railway Board

Accepted Answer

Indian Railways operates under the Ministry of Railways through the Railway Board, which is the apex body for railway policy, administration, and operations.

Question 13

Vande Bharat Express

Accepted Answer

Vande Bharat Express, also known as Train 18, is India's first indigenously designed semi-high-speed train service.

Question 14

Article 32

Accepted Answer

Article 32 protects the Right to Constitutional Remedies, allowing citizens to approach the Supreme Court to enforce Fundamental Rights.

Question 15

Article 79

Accepted Answer

Article 79 describes Parliament as consisting of the President, the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha.

Question 16

Right to Property after the 44th Amendment

Accepted Answer

The 44th Amendment removed the Right to Property from Fundamental Rights and placed it as a constitutional/legal right under Article 300A.

Question 17

Quit India Movement

Accepted Answer

The Quit India Movement began in 1942 with Gandhi's call to end British rule. It is associated with the slogan 'Do or Die'.

Question 18

First Battle of Panipat

Accepted Answer

In 1526, Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi at the First Battle of Panipat, marking the beginning of Mughal rule in India.

Question 19

Largest gas in Earth's atmosphere

Accepted Answer

Nitrogen is the most abundant atmospheric gas, making up about 78% by volume. Oxygen is second at about 21%.

Question 20

Photosynthesis

Accepted Answer

Photosynthesis is how green plants use sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water to make glucose and release oxygen. Chlorophyll captures the light energy.

Question 21

Insulin source

Accepted Answer

Insulin is produced by beta cells in the pancreas. It helps regulate blood glucose by moving sugar from the blood into body cells.

Question 22

Longest river within India

Accepted Answer

The Ganga is generally treated as the longest river flowing within India. It is important for geography, agriculture, transport, and culture.

Question 23

Tropic of Cancer in India

Accepted Answer

The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight Indian states, making it a frequent static-GK geography fact.

Question 24

RBI establishment

Accepted Answer

The Reserve Bank of India was established on 1 April 1935 under the RBI Act, 1934, and later became India's central bank after nationalisation.

Question 25

GST launch date

Accepted Answer

Goods and Services Tax came into effect in India on 1 July 2017, replacing many indirect taxes with a unified framework.

Question 26

BODMAS order

Accepted Answer

Work through Brackets, Orders, Division/Multiplication, then Addition/Subtraction. In exam arithmetic, handle 'of' or multiplication before addition and subtraction.

Question 27

HCF vs LCM

Accepted Answer

HCF is the greatest factor common to the numbers; LCM is the smallest number divisible by all of them. Prime factorisation makes both faster.

Question 28

Percentage as a fraction

Accepted Answer

A percentage means 'per 100'. Convert by dividing by 100: 75% = 75/100 = 3/4, and 3/4 = 75%.

Question 29

Successive percentage change

Accepted Answer

For an increase of a% followed by a decrease of a%, the net change is a loss of a^2/100 percent. Example: +20% then -20% gives -4%.

Question 30

Average of consecutive even numbers

Accepted Answer

For an odd count of consecutive even or odd numbers, the average is the middle number. Build the sequence around that middle value.

Question 31

Profit percentage

Accepted Answer

Profit% = (Profit / Cost Price) x 100. Always compare profit or loss to cost price, not selling price.

Question 32

Simple interest formula

Accepted Answer

Simple Interest = (Principal x Rate x Time) / 100. If a sum doubles under simple interest, the interest equals the principal.

Question 33

Compound interest idea

Accepted Answer

Compound interest earns interest on the growing amount. For annual compounding, Amount = P(1 + R/100)^T, then CI = Amount - P.

Question 34

Speed conversion: km/h to m/s

Accepted Answer

Multiply by 5/18 to convert km/h to m/s. Example: 54 km/h becomes 15 m/s.

Question 35

Relative speed towards each other

Accepted Answer

When two objects move toward each other, add their speeds. Time to meet = distance between them / combined speed.

Question 36

Time and work combined rate

Accepted Answer

If A takes x days and B takes y days, their one-day work is 1/x and 1/y. Together, add the rates and invert the result.

Question 37

Ratio share method

Accepted Answer

If a total is divided in the ratio a:b, first find one part as total / (a + b), then multiply by a or b for each share.

Question 38

Area of a circle

Accepted Answer

Area = pi r^2. For radius 7 and pi = 22/7, the area is (22/7) x 7 x 7 = 154 square units.

Question 39

Quadratic factor check

Accepted Answer

For x^2 - 5x + 6, find two numbers with sum 5 and product 6: 2 and 3. So the factors are (x - 2)(x - 3).

Question 40

Factorial cancellation

Accepted Answer

Cancel common factorial terms before multiplying. For example, 7! / 5! = 7 x 6 because 5! cancels out.

Question 41

Coding-decoding letter shift

Accepted Answer

Identify whether each letter moves by a fixed number of places. CAT to DBU is a +1 shift; MANGO to OCPIQ is a +2 shift.

Question 42

Blood relation shortcut

Accepted Answer

Translate every relationship into a simple family link before answering. Phrases like 'only son' or 'only daughter' usually identify one specific person.

Question 43

Classification questions

Accepted Answer

Find the common property of most options, then choose the one that breaks it. The property may be category, number type, shape, use, or sequence rule.

Question 44

Analogy questions

Accepted Answer

Name the relationship first: tool-function, person-place, part-whole, cause-effect, or degree. Then pick the option with the same relationship.

Question 45

Series pattern search

Accepted Answer

Check differences, multiplication, alternating terms, squares/cubes, and alphabet movement. Do not settle on a pattern until it explains every given term.

Question 46

Syllogism transitivity

Accepted Answer

If all A are B and all B are C, then all A are C. For 'some' statements, only conclude what must follow from the overlap.

Question 47

Direction sense

Accepted Answer

Draw a quick north-east-south-west path and mark each turn. The final displacement from the start gives the answer, not the total distance walked.

Question 48

Calendar remainder method

Accepted Answer

For days after a given weekday, divide the number of days by 7 and use the remainder. A remainder of 2 means move two weekdays ahead.

Question 49

Clock angle at exact hours

Accepted Answer

Each hour mark equals 30 degrees. At 3:00, the hands are three marks apart, so the smaller angle is 90 degrees.

Question 50

Ranking from the opposite side

Accepted Answer

Position from the other end = total people - given position + 1. For 40 people and 12th from the left, the right-side position is 29th.

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