EASA Part-66 Module 2 Exam Flashcards

Q: How many questions are on EASA Part-66 Module 2 Physics?

The current Part-66 examination table assigns 32 multiple-choice questions and 40 minutes to category A and B3. Category B1, B2, and B2L receive 52 multiple-choice questions and 65 minutes. Module 2 has no essay questions.

Q: What is the passing score for EASA Part-66 Module 2?

The pass mark is 75% for the multiple-choice examination. Each question has three alternatives with one correct answer, and Part-66 does not permit penalty marking.

Q: Does EASA publish a Module 2 pass rate?

No central Module 2 candidate pass rate is published by EASA. Results may be held by individual competent authorities or approved training organisations, so a provider-specific figure should not be presented as an EASA-wide pass rate.

Q: Is the Module 2 syllabus the same for every licence category?

No. Matter, statics, kinetics, mass-force-energy, momentum, viscosity and pressure, and heat are Level 1 for category A and B3 but Level 2 for B1, B2, and B2L. Gravity and density plus temperature are Level 2 for all of those categories. Optics and wave motion and sound are not required for A or B3 but are Level 2 for B1, B2, and B2L. Category C applicants must meet either the category B1 or B2 basic knowledge levels.

Q: What happens after failing EASA Part-66 Module 2?

The normal wait is 90 days. A retake may occur after 30 days if an approved Part-147 organisation delivers retraining tailored to the failed subjects. A candidate may make no more than three attempts at an examination in any 12-month period and must disclose recent attempts to the examination provider.

Q: How long does a Module 2 pass remain usable?

The module examination must normally have been passed within the 10 years before the licence application or addition of a category or subcategory. The rule contains an exception for modules already used for an issued licence category, and older examinations may be considered through the examination-credit process.

Q: Does EASA itself administer Module 2 examinations?

Candidates do not book a single central EASA examination. Part-66 provides for basic examinations through a competent authority or an approved Part-147 maintenance training organisation. Registration details therefore depend on the accepted provider and the licensing authority involved.

Question 1

Charges and locations of atomic particles

Accepted Answer

A proton has positive charge and a neutron has no net charge; both are in the nucleus. An electron has negative charge and occupies the surrounding electron cloud. A neutral atom has equal numbers of protons and electrons.

Question 2

Atomic number versus mass number

Accepted Answer

Atomic number is the number of protons and identifies the element. Mass number is the total number of protons plus neutrons in one isotope. Changing neutron count changes the isotope, not the element.

Question 3

Element, compound, and mixture

Accepted Answer

An element contains one type of atom. A compound contains elements chemically bonded in a fixed ratio. A mixture combines substances without fixed chemical bonding, so physical methods can separate its components.

Question 4

Molecule versus ion

Accepted Answer

A molecule is an electrically neutral group of atoms held together by chemical bonds. An ion is an atom or bonded group with net charge: electron loss forms a positive ion, while electron gain forms a negative ion.

Question 5

Particle model of the three common states

Accepted Answer

A solid keeps shape and volume because particles vibrate about fixed positions. A liquid keeps volume but flows to the container's shape. A gas has neither fixed shape nor fixed volume and expands to fill its container.

Question 6

Resolve a force into rectangular components

Accepted Answer

For a force F at angle θ from the positive x-axis, Fx = F cos θ and Fy = F sin θ. Components are signed vectors; their resultant recreates the original force by vector addition.

Question 7

Conditions for static equilibrium

Accepted Answer

A body is in static equilibrium only when the vector sum of forces is zero and the sum of moments about any point is zero. Zero force prevents linear acceleration; zero moment prevents angular acceleration.

Question 8

Moment of a force versus a couple

Accepted Answer

A force moment is M = Fd, where d is the perpendicular distance from the pivot to the force's line of action. A couple is two equal, opposite, separated forces: its net force is zero but it produces a pure turning moment.

Question 9

Centre of gravity and stability

Accepted Answer

The centre of gravity is the point through which the body's resultant weight acts. Stability improves when the centre of gravity is lower and the support base is wider; overturning begins when its vertical line falls outside that base.

Question 10

Normal stress versus normal strain

Accepted Answer

Normal stress is load per original cross-sectional area, σ = F/A, measured in pascals. Normal strain is fractional length change, ε = ΔL/L, and is dimensionless. Stress describes loading; strain describes deformation.

Question 11

Hooke's law and the elastic limit

Accepted Answer

Within the proportional elastic region, stress is proportional to strain: σ = Eε, where E is Young's modulus. Remove the load there and the material recovers; beyond the elastic limit, permanent deformation may remain.

Question 12

Static-liquid pressure and buoyancy

Accepted Answer

Gauge pressure at depth h is p = ρgh, so it rises with density and depth. The resulting pressure difference creates an upward buoyant force equal to the weight of fluid displaced by the immersed body.

Question 13

Speed versus velocity

Accepted Answer

Speed is the scalar rate of distance travelled. Velocity is the vector rate of displacement, so it includes direction. An object can have constant speed while its velocity changes, as in uniform circular motion.

Question 14

Constant-acceleration equations

Accepted Answer

For constant acceleration a: v = u + at, s = ut + ½at², and v² = u² + 2as. Choose a positive direction first and keep the signs of velocity, displacement, and acceleration consistent.

Question 15

Ideal free fall near Earth's surface

Accepted Answer

Ignoring air resistance, every object has the same downward acceleration g, about 9.81 m/s² near Earth's surface. Mass does not change this acceleration; drag is what makes real falling objects behave differently.

Question 16

Centripetal acceleration in circular motion

Accepted Answer

For speed v on radius r, centripetal acceleration is a = v²/r and points toward the centre. The required resultant force is F = mv²/r; 'centrifugal force' is not an outward interaction force in an inertial frame.

Question 17

Period and frequency

Accepted Answer

Period T is time for one cycle; frequency f is cycles per second in hertz. They are reciprocals: f = 1/T. Angular frequency is ω = 2πf, measured in radians per second.

Question 18

When resonance occurs

Accepted Answer

Resonance occurs when a periodic driving frequency is at or near a system's natural frequency, producing a large response when damping is low. Changing stiffness, mass, damping, or forcing frequency changes the response.

Question 19

Newton's first law

Accepted Answer

If no resultant external force acts, a body remains at rest or continues with constant velocity. Inertia is the resistance to a change in motion, and mass measures that inertia.

Question 20

How does Newton's second law connect resultant force, momentum, and acceleration?

Accepted Answer

The resultant external force equals the rate of change of momentum. For constant mass, ΣF = ma. Acceleration has the direction of the resultant force, not necessarily the direction of motion.

Question 21

Newton's third law

Accepted Answer

When body A exerts a force on body B, B simultaneously exerts an equal-magnitude, opposite-direction force on A. The pair acts on different bodies, so the two forces do not cancel on either body's free-body diagram.

Question 22

Mechanical energy and conservation

Accepted Answer

Translational kinetic energy is ½mv² and gravitational potential energy near Earth is mgh. If only conservative forces do work, their sum stays constant; friction transfers mechanical energy into internal energy.

Question 23

Work, power, and efficiency

Accepted Answer

Work by a constant force is W = Fs cos θ. Power is the rate of doing work, P = W/t. Efficiency = useful output energy or power ÷ input energy or power; a real machine's efficiency cannot exceed 1 or 100%.

Question 24

Linear momentum

Accepted Answer

Momentum is p = mv. It is a vector, so its direction follows velocity, and its SI unit is kg·m/s. A small fast mass can have the same momentum as a larger slow mass.

Question 25

Impulse changes momentum

Accepted Answer

Impulse J equals the change in momentum: J = Δp. It also equals the area under a force-time graph. For the same momentum change, increasing stopping time reduces the average impact force.

Question 26

When momentum is conserved

Accepted Answer

Total momentum of a system remains constant when the net external impulse is zero. Internal forces can redistribute momentum between objects, but they cannot change the isolated system's total vector momentum.

Question 27

Elastic versus inelastic collision

Accepted Answer

Both collision types conserve total momentum in an isolated system. An elastic collision also conserves total kinetic energy; an inelastic collision converts some kinetic energy to deformation, heat, or sound, and perfectly inelastic bodies stick together.

Question 28

Mass versus weight

Accepted Answer

Mass measures inertia in kilograms and does not depend on local gravity. Weight is the gravitational force W = mg in newtons, so it changes if gravitational acceleration changes.

Question 29

Density versus relative density

Accepted Answer

Density is mass per volume, ρ = m/V, with SI unit kg/m³. Relative density is the ratio of a substance's density to a reference density, commonly water for liquids and solids, so it has no unit.

Question 30

How temperature affects viscosity

Accepted Answer

Viscosity measures resistance to flow. For most liquids, viscosity decreases as temperature rises; for gases, viscosity generally increases. Always identify the fluid type before predicting the temperature effect.

Question 31

Compressible versus incompressible flow

Accepted Answer

In an incompressible model, density is treated as constant. Gas density can change substantially with pressure and temperature, so compressibility matters especially when pressure changes or flow speeds are high; liquids are often approximated as incompressible.

Question 32

Static, dynamic, and total pressure

Accepted Answer

Static pressure is the fluid's local thermodynamic pressure. Dynamic pressure is q = ½ρv². Along the same streamline in ideal, steady, incompressible flow at one elevation, total pressure is their sum, so increasing speed corresponds to lower static pressure.

Question 33

Convert Celsius to kelvin

Accepted Answer

T(K) = T(°C) + 273.15. A temperature interval of 1 K equals an interval of 1 °C, but the zero points differ. Absolute zero is 0 K, equal to −273.15 °C.

Question 34

Temperature versus heat

Accepted Answer

Temperature describes thermal state and relates to average microscopic particle energy. Heat is energy transferred because of a temperature difference; it flows spontaneously from higher to lower temperature until thermal equilibrium.

Question 35

Specific heat capacity equation

Accepted Answer

For a temperature change without a phase change, Q = mcΔT. Here Q is heat transferred, m is mass, c is specific heat capacity, and ΔT is the temperature change. A larger c requires more heat for the same mass and ΔT.

Question 36

Latent heat during a phase change

Accepted Answer

During an ideal phase change at constant pressure, added or removed energy changes phase rather than temperature. Use Q = mL, where L is the specific latent heat for the relevant melting, vaporisation, or other transition.

Question 37

Three heat-transfer mechanisms

Accepted Answer

Conduction transfers energy through microscopic interactions in matter. Convection transports energy by bulk fluid motion. Radiation transfers energy by electromagnetic waves and therefore does not require a material medium.

Question 38

Linear thermal expansion

Accepted Answer

For a modest temperature change, ΔL = αL₀ΔT, where α is the material's linear expansion coefficient. Expansion gaps and differing coefficients matter because constrained or unequal expansion can create stress and distortion.

Question 39

First law of thermodynamics sign check

Accepted Answer

Using the convention that W is work done by the system, ΔU = Q − W. Heat added raises Q; work done by the system removes stored energy unless heat replaces it. State the sign convention because some texts define work oppositely.

Question 40

Boyle's law

Accepted Answer

For a fixed amount of ideal gas at constant absolute temperature, pressure varies inversely with volume: P₁V₁ = P₂V₂. Reducing volume therefore raises absolute pressure when temperature and gas quantity stay fixed.

Question 41

Charles's law versus the pressure law

Accepted Answer

At constant pressure, Charles's law gives V₁/T₁ = V₂/T₂. At constant volume, P₁/T₁ = P₂/T₂. Temperature must be absolute, normally kelvin, and pressure must be absolute in gas-law ratios.

Question 42

Law of reflection

Accepted Answer

The angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection, with both angles measured from the normal to the surface. The incident ray, reflected ray, and normal all lie in the same plane.

Question 43

Snell's law of refraction

Accepted Answer

At a boundary, n₁ sin θ₁ = n₂ sin θ₂, with angles measured from the normal. A ray bends toward the normal when it enters a medium with higher refractive index and away when it enters a lower-index medium.

Question 44

Refractive index and light speed

Accepted Answer

Absolute refractive index is n = c/v, where c is light speed in vacuum and v is its phase speed in the medium. Because n is a ratio of speeds, it is dimensionless; larger n means lower light speed in that medium.

Question 45

Converging versus diverging thin lenses

Accepted Answer

A converging lens brings parallel rays toward a real focal point and has positive focal length. A diverging lens spreads parallel rays as if they came from a virtual focal point and has negative focal length under the usual sign convention.

Question 46

Total internal reflection in an optical fibre

Accepted Answer

Total internal reflection requires light to travel from higher to lower refractive index and strike at an incidence angle, measured from the normal, greater than the critical angle. A fibre core has higher index than its cladding, confining light by repeated internal reflection.

Question 47

Wave speed equation

Accepted Answer

Wave speed is v = fλ, where f is frequency and λ is wavelength. When a wave enters a new medium, its source-set frequency stays constant while speed and wavelength may change.

Question 48

Transverse versus longitudinal waves

Accepted Answer

In a transverse wave, disturbance is perpendicular to propagation. In a longitudinal wave, disturbance is parallel and forms compressions and rarefactions. Sound in air is longitudinal; electromagnetic light is transverse.

Question 49

Interference and standing-wave nodes

Accepted Answer

Superposition adds instantaneous displacements: in-phase waves reinforce and opposite-phase waves cancel. Opposite-travelling waves of equal frequency and amplitude can form a standing wave with fixed nodes of zero displacement and antinodes of maximum displacement.

Question 50

Doppler shift for sound

Accepted Answer

Relative motion along the source-observer line changes observed frequency. Closing motion gives a higher observed pitch; separating motion gives a lower one. The source frequency itself does not change merely because source and observer move relative to each other.

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EASA Part-66 Module 02 — Physics

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