PNLE Exam Flashcards

Q: What is the PNLE pass rate?

The PRC reported that 3,611 of 8,162 examinees passed the February 2026 Nurses Licensure Examination, a pass rate of about 44.24%. Pass rates vary by administration; PRC publishes official results after each exam date on its website.

Q: How many questions are on the PNLE?

The PNLE has 500 total items, organized into five Nursing Practice subject tests of 100 items each, per the PRC Board of Nursing's enhanced Table of Specifications (Annex A), effective from the November 2025 administration onward.

Q: What score do I need to pass the PNLE?

Republic Act 9173 requires a general average of at least 75% across all five Nursing Practice subjects, with no individual subject rated below 60%. Falling below 60% in any subject triggers a conditional (subject-only) retake even if the overall average is 75% or higher.

Q: How long is the PNLE testing day?

Each of the five Nursing Practice subjects is a separate 2-hour test, for 10 hours of total testing time administered across two days, not counting instructions and breaks, per the PRC exam program.

Q: What happens if I fail only one subject on the PNLE?

If your general average is 75% or higher but one or more subjects fall below 60%, RA 9173 allows a conditional pass: you retake only the failed subject(s) at the next PRC examination and must score at least 75% on the repeated subject(s) to pass.

Q: Is the PNLE required to work as a nurse in the Philippines?

Yes. The PRC Board of Nursing administers the PNLE under RA 9173, the Philippine Nursing Act of 2002. Passing the exam, completing PRC documentary requirements, and taking the professional oath are required before initial registration and licensure as a nurse in the Philippines.

Question 1

Nursing Process (ADPIE)

Accepted Answer

The five-step systematic framework for nursing care: Assessment (collect and validate data), Diagnosis (analyze and name the problem), Planning (set goals and priorities), Implementation (carry out care), Evaluation (determine if goals were met). Assessment always precedes diagnosis and intervention.

Question 2

Primary Health Care (PHC)

Accepted Answer

A community-based approach making essential health care universally accessible through community participation, intersectoral collaboration, appropriate technology, and self-reliance. The barangay is the basic PHC unit in the Philippine health system.

Question 3

Levels of Health Facility Referral

Accepted Answer

Primary level: barangay health station (BHS) and rural health unit (RHU) provide first-contact care. Secondary level: district or provincial hospitals for specialist referral. Tertiary level: regional or specialized hospitals for complex or high-risk cases needing advanced technology.

Question 4

Epidemiologic Triad

Accepted Answer

The three interacting factors that determine disease occurrence: Host (the person or population at risk), Agent (the causative organism or factor), and Environment (physical, biological, and social conditions bringing host and agent together).

Question 5

Attack Rate

Accepted Answer

The proportion of an exposed group that develops disease during a specific outbreak: (number of new cases among exposed divided by total number exposed) x 100. Used to measure the intensity of a point-source outbreak, such as a foodborne illness event.

Question 6

Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)

Accepted Answer

Number of deaths of infants under 1 year of age during a year, divided by the number of live births that year, multiplied by 1,000. A key indicator of maternal-child health, distinct from the neonatal mortality rate (deaths under 28 days) and the under-5 mortality rate.

Question 7

DOTS (Directly Observed Treatment, Short-course)

Accepted Answer

The TB control strategy used in the Philippine National TB Program: a trained treatment partner directly observes the patient swallow every anti-TB dose for the full 6-month first-line regimen, preventing treatment interruption and drug resistance.

Question 8

RA 11332

Accepted Answer

Mandatory Reporting of Notifiable Diseases and Health Events of Public Health Concern Act (2019). Requires health workers and facilities to report notifiable diseases and outbreaks to DOH surveillance systems within prescribed timeframes to enable a rapid public health response.

Question 9

Outbreak Investigation — First Step

Accepted Answer

Verify the diagnosis and confirm that a true outbreak exists before launching control measures. Investigation then proceeds to defining and counting cases, building a line list and epidemic curve by person-place-time, testing hypotheses about the source, and implementing control measures.

Question 10

RA 9173 (Philippine Nursing Act of 2002)

Accepted Answer

The law governing nursing practice in the Philippines: defines the scope of nursing practice (independent and collaborative functions), qualifications for licensure, the Board of Nursing's powers, and grounds for suspension or revocation of a license.

Question 11

Stages of Labor

Accepted Answer

Stage 1: onset of true labor to full cervical dilation (10 cm), the longest stage, with latent, active, and transition phases. Stage 2: full dilation to delivery of the baby. Stage 3: delivery of the baby to delivery of the placenta. Stage 4: first 1-2 hours postpartum, physiologic stabilization and hemorrhage monitoring.

Question 12

APGAR Score

Accepted Answer

Newborn assessment scored 0-2 on five signs: Appearance (color), Pulse (heart rate), Grimace (reflex irritability), Activity (muscle tone), Respiration (breathing effort), for a total of 0-10. Scored at 1 minute (tolerance of extrauterine life) and 5 minutes (response to resuscitation).

Question 13

Essential Intrapartum and Newborn Care (EINC)

Accepted Answer

DOH-mandated protocol for a vigorous newborn: immediate and thorough drying, early skin-to-skin contact, properly timed (delayed) cord clamping at 1-3 minutes, and non-separation of mother and baby to support early breastfeeding initiation within the first hour.

Question 14

Newborn Screening Timing

Accepted Answer

The Philippine Newborn Screening Program collects a heel-prick blood sample ideally between 24 and 72 hours of life, not earlier than 24 hours, to detect metabolic, endocrine, and genetic disorders such as congenital hypothyroidism and PKU before symptoms appear.

Question 15

EPI Immunization Schedule — Birth Doses

Accepted Answer

At birth: BCG, a single dose that protects against severe forms of TB such as TB meningitis and miliary TB, and Hepatitis B vaccine given within 24 hours of birth to prevent perinatal transmission.

Question 16

EPI Immunization Schedule — Infant Series

Accepted Answer

Pentavalent (DPT-HepB-Hib) and PCV are given at 6, 10, and 14 weeks; OPV/IPV follow the same schedule. MMR is given at 9 months, with a second dose at 12-15 months, per the DOH Expanded Program on Immunization.

Question 17

Postpartum Hemorrhage — First Action for a Boggy Uterus

Accepted Answer

Massage the fundus immediately and call for assistance. A boggy (soft), high uterus with heavy bleeding indicates uterine atony, the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage (blood loss over 500 mL for a vaginal birth); fundal massage restores uterine tone while help is summoned.

Question 18

REEDA Scale

Accepted Answer

Postpartum perineal or episiotomy wound assessment: Redness, Edema, Ecchymosis, Discharge, Approximation (wound edges closed). Assessed at every postpartum check to detect infection or poor healing early.

Question 19

Growth & Development Milestones (Infant-Preschool)

Accepted Answer

Head control by 3-4 months; sits with support by 6 months; walks and says a few words by 12 months. Toddlers show parallel play and frequent tantrums (autonomy vs. shame/doubt). Preschoolers show associative play and magical/preoperational thinking (initiative vs. guilt).

Question 20

Placenta Previa vs. Abruptio Placentae

Accepted Answer

Placenta previa: painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding; placenta covers or lies near the cervix; abdomen soft and non-tender; vaginal exam is contraindicated. Abruptio placentae: painful, dark-red bleeding from premature separation of a normally implanted placenta; abdomen rigid and tender.

Question 21

Normal Adult Vital Sign Ranges

Accepted Answer

Heart rate 60-100 bpm; respiratory rate 12-20 breaths/min; blood pressure below 120/80 mmHg; temperature 36.5-37.5 degrees C average; SpO2 95-100%. Deviations should be correlated with the client's baseline and clinical presentation.

Question 22

Subjective vs. Objective Data

Accepted Answer

Subjective data is what the patient states or reports and cannot be directly measured, such as pain level or nausea. Objective data is what the nurse observes or measures directly, such as vital signs, wound appearance, and laboratory results.

Question 23

Standard Precautions

Accepted Answer

Infection-control practices applied to every patient, every time, regardless of diagnosis: hand hygiene, PPE when contact with blood or body fluids is anticipated, safe injection practices, and respiratory hygiene or cough etiquette. The foundation beneath all transmission-based precautions.

Question 24

Airborne Precautions

Accepted Answer

Used for pathogens that remain suspended in air and travel long distances: tuberculosis, measles, and varicella (chickenpox). Requires a negative-pressure room and an N95 or higher-level respirator for staff entering the room.

Question 25

Droplet Precautions

Accepted Answer

Used for pathogens spread by large respiratory droplets over short distances, generally within 3 feet (about 1 meter): influenza, mumps, pertussis, and rubella. A surgical mask worn within that distance of the patient is sufficient; a standard door and normal airflow are fine.

Question 26

Contact Precautions

Accepted Answer

Used for pathogens spread by direct or indirect contact: MRSA, C. difficile, and scabies. Requires a gown and gloves for all patient contact plus dedicated or disinfected equipment; C. difficile specifically requires soap-and-water hand hygiene because alcohol rub does not kill spores.

Question 27

Rights of Medication Administration

Accepted Answer

Right patient (verify two identifiers), right drug, right dose, right route, right time, and right documentation, plus right reason, right response, right education, and right to refuse. High-alert medications require an independent double-check of the dose.

Question 28

Signs of Fluid Volume Deficit

Accepted Answer

Tachycardia, dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, thirst, and concentrated or decreased urine output, with possible hypotension. Reflects loss of extracellular fluid faster than intake; the nurse anticipates fluid replacement and monitors for worsening perfusion.

Question 29

Hyperkalemia — Key Signs

Accepted Answer

Serum potassium above 5.0 mEq/L. The classic ECG change is tall, peaked T waves, which can progress to a widened QRS and lethal dysrhythmias. Common causes include renal failure, tissue damage, and acidosis; requires prompt recognition and cardiac monitoring.

Question 30

Informed Consent — Nurse's Role

Accepted Answer

The physician or surgeon performing the procedure is responsible for explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives and for obtaining consent. The nurse's role is to witness the signature, verify the client's understanding, and notify the provider if questions remain unanswered, not to give the primary explanation.

Question 31

DKA vs. HHS

Accepted Answer

Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA): usually type 1 diabetes, ketones present with metabolic acidosis, rapid onset, Kussmaul breathing, fruity breath odor. Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS): usually type 2 diabetes, no significant ketones, slower onset, extreme hyperglycemia, more common in older adults.

Question 32

Kussmaul Breathing

Accepted Answer

Deep, rapid, labored respirations that are the body's compensatory mechanism to blow off CO2 and correct metabolic acidosis. Classically seen in diabetic ketoacidosis; a key assessment finding that helps distinguish DKA from HHS.

Question 33

Hypoglycemia — Recognition and Action

Accepted Answer

Blood glucose below 70 mg/dL, with shakiness, diaphoresis, confusion, tachycardia, and hunger. For a conscious client, give 15-20 g of fast-acting oral glucose and recheck in 15 minutes. For an unconscious client, give IV dextrose or IM/intranasal glucagon per protocol; never give oral intake to an unresponsive client.

Question 34

Thyroid Storm

Accepted Answer

A life-threatening exacerbation of hyperthyroidism: high fever, severe tachycardia, agitation or delirium, and hypertension that can progress to cardiovascular collapse if untreated. Requires immediate treatment with antithyroid drugs, beta-blockers, and cooling measures.

Question 35

GERD Client Teaching

Accepted Answer

Avoid late or large meals and lying down within 2-3 hours of eating; elevate the head of the bed; avoid trigger foods such as fatty, spicy, caffeinated, alcoholic, chocolate, or mint items. Weight management reduces reflux by lowering intra-abdominal pressure.

Question 36

Acute Pancreatitis — Key Findings

Accepted Answer

Severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, elevated serum amylase and lipase, and nausea or vomiting. Priority nursing care includes NPO status to rest the pancreas, IV fluids, pain management, and monitoring for hypocalcemia and systemic complications.

Question 37

Cirrhosis — Key Findings

Accepted Answer

Chronic liver damage presenting with ascites, jaundice, and increased bleeding risk from impaired clotting-factor synthesis. The nurse monitors for hepatic encephalopathy (rising ammonia), esophageal varices, and fluid or electrolyte imbalance.

Question 38

Stroke Warning Signs (FAST)

Accepted Answer

Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call for emergency help. Sudden onset of any of these signs is a medical emergency; document the last-known-well time because it determines eligibility for time-sensitive treatment such as thrombolytics.

Question 39

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Accepted Answer

A standardized neurologic assessment scoring three responses: Eye opening (1-4), Verbal response (1-5), Motor response (1-6), for a total of 3-15. A lower score indicates a more depressed level of consciousness; a drop of 2 or more points signals significant neurologic deterioration.

Question 40

Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP)

Accepted Answer

Early signs: severe headache, vomiting (often without nausea), and altered level of consciousness, the earliest and most sensitive indicator, plus pupillary changes. Cushing's triad (widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, irregular respirations) is a late, preterminal sign requiring immediate intervention.

Question 41

Denial (Defense Mechanism)

Accepted Answer

Unconscious refusal to accept a painful reality or fact, acting as if it does not exist. Common in early stages of grief, a terminal diagnosis, or substance use disorder; the nurse acknowledges the client's feelings without reinforcing the denial.

Question 42

Projection (Defense Mechanism)

Accepted Answer

Unconsciously attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or impulses to another person. Example: a client who is angry at self instead accuses the nurse of being angry at them.

Question 43

Displacement (Defense Mechanism)

Accepted Answer

Redirecting emotions, often anger, from the original threatening source to a safer or less threatening substitute target. Example: a client yells at a family member after a frustrating encounter with a physician.

Question 44

Rationalization vs. Regression

Accepted Answer

Rationalization: justifying unacceptable behavior or feelings with logical-sounding but self-serving excuses. Regression: reverting to behaviors typical of an earlier developmental stage under stress, such as a hospitalized child reverting to thumb-sucking or bedwetting.

Question 45

Reaction Formation vs. Sublimation

Accepted Answer

Reaction formation: expressing the opposite of one's true, unacceptable feeling, such as excessive kindness masking resentment. Sublimation: channeling an unacceptable impulse into a socially acceptable and often constructive activity, such as aggression redirected into competitive sports.

Question 46

Therapeutic Communication Techniques

Accepted Answer

Open-ended questions invite a full response; reflecting mirrors the client's stated feeling back to them; silence allows the client time to process; active listening confirms understanding. These techniques keep the focus on the client's own thoughts and feelings.

Question 47

Non-Therapeutic Communication Blocks

Accepted Answer

False reassurance ('everything will be fine'), giving unsolicited advice, asking 'why' questions that sound accusatory, changing the subject, and approving or disapproving of the client's behavior all block therapeutic communication and should be avoided.

Question 48

ABC Priority Framework

Accepted Answer

Airway compromise is addressed first, then Breathing problems once the airway is open, then Circulation problems once A and B are adequate. This ABC order takes priority over Maslow's hierarchy of needs when a client has an immediate physiologic threat to life.

Question 49

Hypovolemic Shock — Key Signs

Accepted Answer

Tachycardia, hypotension, cool and clammy pale skin, a weak or thready pulse, delayed capillary refill, and decreased urine output, reflecting the body's compensatory response to significant blood or fluid loss. Priority action is to control any active bleeding source and support circulation with IV fluids or blood products per protocol.

Question 50

Suicide Risk Assessment

Accepted Answer

Ask directly and non-judgmentally whether the client is thinking of harming or killing themselves; direct questioning does not increase risk and is required for accurate assessment. Ensure immediate environmental safety by removing means, and arrange continuous observation for a client with an active plan and means.

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