Free CPCT/A Exam Flashcards

Temperature 97.0-99.0°F (36.1-37.2°C); pulse 60-100 bpm; respirations 12-20 breaths/min; blood pressure under 120/80 mmHg; SpO2 95-100%.

Normal: under 120/under 80. Elevated: 120-129/under 80. Stage 1: 130-139 or 80-89. Stage 2: 140+ or 90+. Hypertensive crisis: over 180 and/or over 120.

A systolic BP drop of 20 mmHg or more, a diastolic drop of 10 mmHg or more, or a pulse increase of 30 bpm or more, within 1-3 minutes of standing after 5 minutes supine.

Pulse auscultated at the heart's apex; the required measurement site for infants and for patients with an irregular heart rhythm. Count for a full 60 seconds.

Fowler's = head of bed elevated 45-60 degrees, used for eating and breathing comfort. Semi-Fowler's = elevated 30-45 degrees, used to reduce aspiration risk for tube-fed or reflux-prone patients.

A semi-prone position lying on the left side, with the left leg slightly bent and the right knee drawn up. Helps oral secretions drain from an unconscious or sedated patient's mouth; also used for enemas and rectal exams.

Flat on the back with the head lower than the feet (about 15-30 degrees). Used only under a provider's order for shock/hypotension or certain procedures — never a routine comfort position.

Always clean front to back (urethra toward rectum) for female patients, to prevent moving fecal bacteria toward the urethra and causing a urinary tract infection.

Always keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder to allow gravity drainage and prevent urine from backing up into the bladder, which raises infection risk.

Graded 1+ (about 2 mm indentation, rapid rebound) to 4+ (about 8 mm, rebound over 20 seconds), based on indentation depth and how quickly the skin rebounds.

Observational pain scale for patients who cannot self-report: scores Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability from 0-2 each, for a total score of 0-10.

Right task, right circumstance, right person, right direction/communication, and right supervision — govern which duties a nurse may safely assign to a PCT.

Pain, Position, Potty, and Possessions — the four areas checked during structured hourly rounding to prevent unmet needs and reduce fall risk.

A gait belt is applied over clothing and should be snug enough that only two fingers slide comfortably between the belt and the patient's body.

Passive range of motion (PROM) is performed BY the caregiver for a patient who cannot move a joint independently. Active range of motion (AROM) is performed by the patient alone.

FWB (full), WBAT (as tolerated), PWB (partial), and NWB (non) weight-bearing status determines the transfer method: standing pivot needs at least partial weight-bearing, a slide board suits a patient who cannot stand, and a mechanical (Hoyer) lift suits a patient who cannot bear weight or assist at all.

Stage 1: non-blanchable redness on intact skin. Stage 2: partial-thickness skin loss. Stage 3: full-thickness skin loss with visible fat. Stage 4: full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.

Unstageable = full-thickness loss obscured by slough or eschar. Deep tissue injury (DTI) = persistent non-blanchable deep red, maroon, or purple discoloration under intact or non-intact skin. Reposition immobile patients at least every 2 hours (q2h).

Adequate adult urine output is generally at least about 30 mL/hour; output persistently below this must be reported promptly. All intake and output is measured and recorded in mL using a calibrated container — never estimated.

Nasal cannula: 1-6 L/min (flows above about 4 L/min tend to dry the nasal mucosa). Non-rebreather mask: about 10-15 L/min, needed to keep the reservoir bag from collapsing and causing the patient to rebreathe carbon dioxide.

Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30-45 degrees during any tube feeding or meal — never feed a patient lying flat. Keep the patient upright for 30-60 minutes after the feeding or meal ends.

Compression rate 100-120/min at a depth of at least 2 in (5 cm) but not more than 2.4 in (6 cm). Compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2 for single-rescuer adult, child, and infant CPR (15:2 for two-rescuer child/infant CPR).

Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call for help — the mnemonic for recognizing the classic signs of stroke and acting immediately.

Joint Commission standards require confirming two identifiers — such as full name and date of birth — before any care, treatment, or procedure. Room or bed number is never an acceptable identifier.

A mandatory verbal pause immediately before an invasive procedure, where the team confirms the correct patient, correct procedure, and correct site.

A PCT/A's scope excludes medication administration, IV therapy, and independent patient assessment — these remain licensed-nurse tasks that cannot legally be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel.

A PCT/A reports changes in patient condition immediately to the charge nurse or supervising RN — not directly to the physician.

Healthcare workers, including the PCT/A, are mandated reporters and must report reasonable suspicion — not proof — of abuse or neglect to a supervisor and protective services.

Autonomy (patient self-determination), beneficence (doing good), nonmaleficence (doing no harm), and justice (fair treatment).

Requires accessing, using, or sharing only the protected health information (PHI) needed to complete a specific task — nothing more.

Draw a single line through the incorrect entry and add a signed, dated amendment — never erase, delete, or use correction fluid on a health record.

Every SDS has 16 standardized sections; Section 2 covers hazard identification and Section 4 covers first-aid measures.

RACE = Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate (order of fire response). PASS = Pull the pin, Aim at the base, Squeeze the handle, Sweep side to side (fire extinguisher use).

Infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host. Breaking any one link stops disease spread.

Hand hygiene, gloves, and eye/face protection as indicated — applied to EVERY patient, every time, regardless of diagnosis or presumed infection status.

Donning (putting on): gown, mask or respirator, goggles or face shield, then gloves. Doffing (removing): gloves, goggles or face shield, gown, then mask or respirator.

Airborne (TB, measles, varicella): fit-tested N95 or higher respirator plus a negative-pressure room. Droplet (influenza, pertussis, meningitis): surgical mask only. Contact (MRSA, C. diff): gown and gloves.

Alcohol-based hand sanitizer does NOT kill C. diff spores — hands must be washed with soap and water after caring for a patient with C. diff.

The median cubital vein is the first-choice site — large, well anchored, and least painful. The basilic vein is the last-choice site — it lies near the median nerve and brachial artery and requires extra caution.

Blood culture (yellow) → light blue citrate → red/gold SST → green heparin → lavender/pink EDTA → gray fluoride. Cultures are drawn first to protect sterility; fluoride is drawn last because it is the most disruptive additive.

Light blue citrate tubes: 3-4 inversions, with an exact blood-to-additive ratio required for valid coagulation testing. Heparin, EDTA, and fluoride tubes: 8-10 gentle inversions each to fully mix the additive.

Insert the needle at a 15-30 degree angle to avoid passing through the vein into deeper tissue. Release the tourniquet within 1 minute of application to prevent hemoconcentration.

Wipe away the first drop of blood — it is diluted with tissue fluid and alcohol residue. Capillary order of draw places the EDTA (lavender) tube first, before platelets clump at the puncture site. Infant heel sticks use the medial or lateral plantar surface, never the posterior curvature, to avoid the calcaneus.

Scrub the site with chlorhexidine (or alcohol/iodine as an alternative) and let it fully air dry before puncture to maintain sterility. Per most facility protocols, the aerobic bottle is filled before the anaerobic bottle.

Label specimens at the patient's bedside, immediately after collection, in the patient's presence — never prelabel tubes before the draw.

SA node (the heart's primary pacemaker): intrinsic rate 60-100 bpm. AV node (delays the impulse and can serve as a backup pacemaker): 40-60 bpm.

Standard EKG paper speed is 25 mm/second. At this speed, one small box equals 0.04 second and one large box (5 small boxes) equals 0.2 second.

V1: 4th intercostal space, right sternal border. V2: 4th intercostal space, left sternal border. V4: 5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line (placed before V3, which is the midpoint between V2 and V4). V5 and V6: same horizontal level as V4, at the anterior axillary and midaxillary lines.

Normal PR interval: 0.12-0.20 second. Normal QRS duration: less than 0.12 second. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization.

VT shows a fast, wide-QRS rhythm that may still have a pulse. VF produces no organized QRS complexes and no pulse — it is always a cardiac arrest requiring immediate CPR and defibrillation.