CPCT/A Exam Flashcards

Q: What is the CPCT/A exam pass rate?

NHA's 2024 annual pass-rate report shows a 73% pass rate for the CPCT/A exam, based on 17,816 exams administered that year. NHA does not separately publish a first-time-only pass rate for this exam.

Q: How many questions are on the CPCT/A exam?

The CPCT/A exam has 120 total items: 100 scored questions plus 20 unscored pretest questions, with a 2-hour time limit to complete the exam.

Q: What score do I need to pass the CPCT/A exam?

NHA reports CPCT/A results on a 200-500 scaled score. You need a scaled score of 390 to pass, based on your performance on the 100 scored items.

Q: What are the CPCT/A exam domains and weights?

Patient Care (45%), Compliance/Safety/Professional Responsibility (20%), Phlebotomy (14%), Infection Control (11%), and EKG (10%), for 100 scored items total.

Q: How soon can I retake the CPCT/A exam if I fail?

You must wait at least 30 days after a first or second failed attempt before retesting. After a third failed attempt, NHA requires a 12-month waiting period before another attempt.

Q: Do I need employer sponsorship to take the CPCT/A exam?

No. Candidates qualify through a high-school-diploma/GED plus training-program pathway or a supervised work-experience pathway, and apply directly through nhanow.com. No employer sponsorship is required to sit for the exam.

Question 1

Normal Adult Vital Sign Ranges

Accepted Answer

Temperature 97.0-99.0°F (36.1-37.2°C); pulse 60-100 bpm; respirations 12-20 breaths/min; blood pressure under 120/80 mmHg; SpO2 95-100%.

Question 2

Blood Pressure Staging (ACC/AHA)

Accepted Answer

Normal: under 120/under 80. Elevated: 120-129/under 80. Stage 1: 130-139 or 80-89. Stage 2: 140+ or 90+. Hypertensive crisis: over 180 and/or over 120.

Question 3

Orthostatic Hypotension — Positive Result

Accepted Answer

A systolic BP drop of 20 mmHg or more, a diastolic drop of 10 mmHg or more, or a pulse increase of 30 bpm or more, within 1-3 minutes of standing after 5 minutes supine.

Question 4

Apical Pulse

Accepted Answer

Pulse auscultated at the heart's apex; the required measurement site for infants and for patients with an irregular heart rhythm. Count for a full 60 seconds.

Question 5

Fowler's & Semi-Fowler's Position

Accepted Answer

Fowler's = head of bed elevated 45-60 degrees, used for eating and breathing comfort. Semi-Fowler's = elevated 30-45 degrees, used to reduce aspiration risk for tube-fed or reflux-prone patients.

Question 6

Sims' Position

Accepted Answer

A semi-prone position lying on the left side, with the left leg slightly bent and the right knee drawn up. Helps oral secretions drain from an unconscious or sedated patient's mouth; also used for enemas and rectal exams.

Question 7

Trendelenburg Position

Accepted Answer

Flat on the back with the head lower than the feet (about 15-30 degrees). Used only under a provider's order for shock/hypotension or certain procedures — never a routine comfort position.

Question 8

Perineal Care Technique

Accepted Answer

Always clean front to back (urethra toward rectum) for female patients, to prevent moving fecal bacteria toward the urethra and causing a urinary tract infection.

Question 9

Foley Catheter Drainage Bag Position

Accepted Answer

Always keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder to allow gravity drainage and prevent urine from backing up into the bladder, which raises infection risk.

Question 10

Pitting Edema Grading Scale

Accepted Answer

Graded 1+ (about 2 mm indentation, rapid rebound) to 4+ (about 8 mm, rebound over 20 seconds), based on indentation depth and how quickly the skin rebounds.

Question 11

FLACC Pain Scale

Accepted Answer

Observational pain scale for patients who cannot self-report: scores Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability from 0-2 each, for a total score of 0-10.

Question 12

Five Rights of Delegation

Accepted Answer

Right task, right circumstance, right person, right direction/communication, and right supervision — govern which duties a nurse may safely assign to a PCT.

Question 13

Purposeful Hourly Rounding — the 4 Ps

Accepted Answer

Pain, Position, Potty, and Possessions — the four areas checked during structured hourly rounding to prevent unmet needs and reduce fall risk.

Question 14

Gait Belt — Two-Finger Rule

Accepted Answer

A gait belt is applied over clothing and should be snug enough that only two fingers slide comfortably between the belt and the patient's body.

Question 15

PROM vs. AROM

Accepted Answer

Passive range of motion (PROM) is performed BY the caregiver for a patient who cannot move a joint independently. Active range of motion (AROM) is performed by the patient alone.

Question 16

Weight-Bearing Status & Transfer Method

Accepted Answer

FWB (full), WBAT (as tolerated), PWB (partial), and NWB (non) weight-bearing status determines the transfer method: standing pivot needs at least partial weight-bearing, a slide board suits a patient who cannot stand, and a mechanical (Hoyer) lift suits a patient who cannot bear weight or assist at all.

Question 17

Pressure Injury Stages 1-4

Accepted Answer

Stage 1: non-blanchable redness on intact skin. Stage 2: partial-thickness skin loss. Stage 3: full-thickness skin loss with visible fat. Stage 4: full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.

Question 18

Unstageable & Deep Tissue Pressure Injury

Accepted Answer

Unstageable = full-thickness loss obscured by slough or eschar. Deep tissue injury (DTI) = persistent non-blanchable deep red, maroon, or purple discoloration under intact or non-intact skin. Reposition immobile patients at least every 2 hours (q2h).

Question 19

Adequate Urine Output & I&O Measurement

Accepted Answer

Adequate adult urine output is generally at least about 30 mL/hour; output persistently below this must be reported promptly. All intake and output is measured and recorded in mL using a calibrated container — never estimated.

Question 20

Oxygen Delivery Devices & Flow Rates

Accepted Answer

Nasal cannula: 1-6 L/min (flows above about 4 L/min tend to dry the nasal mucosa). Non-rebreather mask: about 10-15 L/min, needed to keep the reservoir bag from collapsing and causing the patient to rebreathe carbon dioxide.

Question 21

Aspiration Precautions During Feeding

Accepted Answer

Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30-45 degrees during any tube feeding or meal — never feed a patient lying flat. Keep the patient upright for 30-60 minutes after the feeding or meal ends.

Question 22

Adult CPR: Rate, Depth & Ratio

Accepted Answer

Compression rate 100-120/min at a depth of at least 2 in (5 cm) but not more than 2.4 in (6 cm). Compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2 for single-rescuer adult, child, and infant CPR (15:2 for two-rescuer child/infant CPR).

Question 23

FAST Stroke Assessment

Accepted Answer

Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call for help — the mnemonic for recognizing the classic signs of stroke and acting immediately.

Question 24

Two Patient Identifiers (Joint Commission)

Accepted Answer

Joint Commission standards require confirming two identifiers — such as full name and date of birth — before any care, treatment, or procedure. Room or bed number is never an acceptable identifier.

Question 25

The Time-Out Procedure

Accepted Answer

A mandatory verbal pause immediately before an invasive procedure, where the team confirms the correct patient, correct procedure, and correct site.

Question 26

PCT/A Scope of Practice Exclusions

Accepted Answer

A PCT/A's scope excludes medication administration, IV therapy, and independent patient assessment — these remain licensed-nurse tasks that cannot legally be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel.

Question 27

Chain of Command for Reporting

Accepted Answer

A PCT/A reports changes in patient condition immediately to the charge nurse or supervising RN — not directly to the physician.

Question 28

Mandated Reporting of Abuse/Neglect

Accepted Answer

Healthcare workers, including the PCT/A, are mandated reporters and must report reasonable suspicion — not proof — of abuse or neglect to a supervisor and protective services.

Question 29

Four Principles of Medical Ethics

Accepted Answer

Autonomy (patient self-determination), beneficence (doing good), nonmaleficence (doing no harm), and justice (fair treatment).

Question 30

HIPAA Minimum-Necessary Standard

Accepted Answer

Requires accessing, using, or sharing only the protected health information (PHI) needed to complete a specific task — nothing more.

Question 31

Correcting an EHR Documentation Error

Accepted Answer

Draw a single line through the incorrect entry and add a signed, dated amendment — never erase, delete, or use correction fluid on a health record.

Question 32

OSHA Safety Data Sheet (SDS)

Accepted Answer

Every SDS has 16 standardized sections; Section 2 covers hazard identification and Section 4 covers first-aid measures.

Question 33

Fire Response: RACE and PASS

Accepted Answer

RACE = Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate (order of fire response). PASS = Pull the pin, Aim at the base, Squeeze the handle, Sweep side to side (fire extinguisher use).

Question 34

Chain of Infection — Six Links

Accepted Answer

Infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host. Breaking any one link stops disease spread.

Question 35

Standard Precautions

Accepted Answer

Hand hygiene, gloves, and eye/face protection as indicated — applied to EVERY patient, every time, regardless of diagnosis or presumed infection status.

Question 36

PPE Donning & Doffing Order

Accepted Answer

Donning (putting on): gown, mask or respirator, goggles or face shield, then gloves. Doffing (removing): gloves, goggles or face shield, gown, then mask or respirator.

Question 37

Transmission-Based Precautions

Accepted Answer

Airborne (TB, measles, varicella): fit-tested N95 or higher respirator plus a negative-pressure room. Droplet (influenza, pertussis, meningitis): surgical mask only. Contact (MRSA, C. diff): gown and gloves.

Question 38

C. difficile Hand Hygiene

Accepted Answer

Alcohol-based hand sanitizer does NOT kill C. diff spores — hands must be washed with soap and water after caring for a patient with C. diff.

Question 39

Best Venipuncture Site

Accepted Answer

The median cubital vein is the first-choice site — large, well anchored, and least painful. The basilic vein is the last-choice site — it lies near the median nerve and brachial artery and requires extra caution.

Question 40

CLSI Order of Draw

Accepted Answer

Blood culture (yellow) → light blue citrate → red/gold SST → green heparin → lavender/pink EDTA → gray fluoride. Cultures are drawn first to protect sterility; fluoride is drawn last because it is the most disruptive additive.

Question 41

Tube Additives & Inversion Counts

Accepted Answer

Light blue citrate tubes: 3-4 inversions, with an exact blood-to-additive ratio required for valid coagulation testing. Heparin, EDTA, and fluoride tubes: 8-10 gentle inversions each to fully mix the additive.

Question 42

Venipuncture Angle & Tourniquet Timing

Accepted Answer

Insert the needle at a 15-30 degree angle to avoid passing through the vein into deeper tissue. Release the tourniquet within 1 minute of application to prevent hemoconcentration.

Question 43

Capillary Puncture Technique

Accepted Answer

Wipe away the first drop of blood — it is diluted with tissue fluid and alcohol residue. Capillary order of draw places the EDTA (lavender) tube first, before platelets clump at the puncture site. Infant heel sticks use the medial or lateral plantar surface, never the posterior curvature, to avoid the calcaneus.

Question 44

Blood Culture Collection

Accepted Answer

Scrub the site with chlorhexidine (or alcohol/iodine as an alternative) and let it fully air dry before puncture to maintain sterility. Per most facility protocols, the aerobic bottle is filled before the anaerobic bottle.

Question 45

Specimen Labeling Rule

Accepted Answer

Label specimens at the patient's bedside, immediately after collection, in the patient's presence — never prelabel tubes before the draw.

Question 46

Cardiac Conduction System Rates

Accepted Answer

SA node (the heart's primary pacemaker): intrinsic rate 60-100 bpm. AV node (delays the impulse and can serve as a backup pacemaker): 40-60 bpm.

Question 47

EKG Paper Speed & Box Values

Accepted Answer

Standard EKG paper speed is 25 mm/second. At this speed, one small box equals 0.04 second and one large box (5 small boxes) equals 0.2 second.

Question 48

Precordial (Chest) Lead Placement V1-V6

Accepted Answer

V1: 4th intercostal space, right sternal border. V2: 4th intercostal space, left sternal border. V4: 5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line (placed before V3, which is the midpoint between V2 and V4). V5 and V6: same horizontal level as V4, at the anterior axillary and midaxillary lines.

Question 49

Normal EKG Intervals & Waveforms

Accepted Answer

Normal PR interval: 0.12-0.20 second. Normal QRS duration: less than 0.12 second. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization.

Question 50

Ventricular Tachycardia vs. Ventricular Fibrillation

Accepted Answer

VT shows a fast, wide-QRS rhythm that may still have a pulse. VF produces no organized QRS complexes and no pulse — it is always a cardiac arrest requiring immediate CPR and defibrillation.

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NHA Patient Care Technician (CPCT/A)

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