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100+ Free FAA Instrument Rating Practice Questions

Pass your FAA Instrument Rating Airplane (IRA) Knowledge Test exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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Question 1
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What does a 'NoPT' notation on an instrument approach chart mean?

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: FAA Instrument Rating Exam

60

Exam Questions

Multiple choice (IRA)

70%

Passing Score

42 of 60 correct

$175

Exam Fee

PSI testing centers

2.5 hrs

Time Allotted

FAA Testing Matrix

40 hrs

Instrument Time Required

14 CFR 61.65(d)

24 months

Results Validity

Toward practical test

The FAA Instrument Rating Airplane (IRA) exam has 60 multiple-choice questions covering 8 ACS areas of operation. Major content areas include Preflight Preparation (20%), ATC Clearances and Procedures (20%), Navigation Systems (15%), and Instrument Approach Procedures (15%). You need 70% (42 of 60 correct) to pass. The $175 exam is administered at PSI testing centers. Knowledge test results are valid for 24 calendar months toward your practical test. The current ACS standard is FAA-S-ACS-8C. Eligibility per 14 CFR 61.65 requires 50 hours PIC cross-country (10 in airplane), 40 hours actual/simulated instrument time (15 from a CFII), and at least a private pilot certificate.

Sample FAA Instrument Rating Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your FAA Instrument Rating exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under 14 CFR 61.65(d), to be eligible for an instrument-airplane rating, a person must have logged how many hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command?
A.10 hours total cross-country PIC
B.40 hours cross-country PIC
C.50 hours cross-country PIC (10 of which must be in an airplane)
D.100 hours cross-country PIC
Explanation: Per 14 CFR 61.65(d)(2), an applicant for the instrument-airplane rating must have logged 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot in command, of which at least 10 hours must be in an airplane. This requirement is in addition to the 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time required under 61.65(d)(3).
2How many hours of actual or simulated instrument time are required for the instrument-airplane rating, and what minimum portion must be received from an authorized instructor?
A.30 hours total, 10 with a CFII
B.40 hours total, 15 with a CFII
C.50 hours total, 20 with a CFII
D.40 hours total, with no specific instructor minimum
Explanation: Per 14 CFR 61.65(d)(3), the applicant must have at least 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time, of which 15 hours must have been received from an authorized instructor who holds an instrument-airplane rating (a CFII). The training must cover the areas of operation listed in 14 CFR 61.65(c).
3The FAA Instrument Rating Airplane (IRA) knowledge test consists of how many questions, and what is the time limit?
A.50 questions in 2 hours
B.60 questions in 2.5 hours
C.100 questions in 2.5 hours
D.60 questions in 2 hours
Explanation: Per the FAA Airman Knowledge Testing Matrix, the Instrument Rating Airplane (IRA) test contains 60 multiple-choice questions with a 2.5-hour (150-minute) time limit. A score of 70% (42 of 60) is required to pass. The fee is approximately $175 at PSI testing centers.
4Under 14 CFR 91.169, what is the standard alternate airport weather minima at the ETA when forecasts indicate ceiling and visibility for a destination airport with no published instrument approach?
A.Ceiling 600 feet and 2 statute miles visibility
B.Forecasts must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR
C.Ceiling 800 feet and 2 statute miles visibility
D.Ceiling 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles visibility
Explanation: Per 14 CFR 91.169(c)(2), if no instrument approach procedure is published for the alternate airport, the ceiling and visibility minima are those that allow descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR. For airports with a published procedure, standard alternate minima are 600/2 (precision) or 800/2 (nonprecision) unless otherwise specified.
5Under 14 CFR 91.167, an IFR flight must carry fuel sufficient to fly to the first airport of intended landing, then to the alternate (if required), and then how long at normal cruising speed?
A.30 minutes
B.45 minutes
C.1 hour
D.1 hour 30 minutes
Explanation: Per 14 CFR 91.167(a)(3), an IFR flight must have enough fuel (considering forecast weather) to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, then to the alternate (if required), and thereafter to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. If no alternate is required (per the 1-2-3 rule in 91.169), the 45-minute reserve still applies after the destination.
6Under the '1-2-3 rule' of 14 CFR 91.169, an alternate airport must be filed if, for at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA, the forecast indicates which of the following?
A.Ceiling less than 3,000 feet or visibility less than 5 statute miles
B.Ceiling less than 2,000 feet or visibility less than 3 statute miles
C.Ceiling less than 1,000 feet or visibility less than 2 statute miles
D.Any forecast of precipitation or mountain obscuration
Explanation: The '1-2-3 rule' of 14 CFR 91.169(b) requires an alternate when, for at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA, the forecast ceiling is less than 2,000 feet AGL or visibility is less than 3 statute miles. If the forecast is at or above both, no alternate is required.
7Under 14 CFR 91.205(d), which instrument is NOT required for IFR flight in addition to the day VFR and night VFR equipment?
A.Generator or alternator of adequate capacity
B.Radios appropriate to ATC facilities being used and navigation equipment suitable for the route
C.Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
D.Slip-skid indicator, sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure, and clock displaying hours/minutes/seconds with a sweep-second pointer or digital presentation
Explanation: DME is NOT a general IFR equipment requirement under 14 CFR 91.205(d). DME is required only above FL240 if VOR is used for navigation (per 91.205(e)) or when required by a specific instrument procedure. The other items (generator/alternator, radios/nav equipment, slip-skid, sensitive altimeter, clock) are all required by 91.205(d). The mnemonic 'GRABCARD' captures these items.
8Per 14 CFR 91.171, a VOR receiver used for IFR operations must have been operationally checked within the preceding how many days?
A.15 days
B.30 days
C.60 days
D.90 days
Explanation: Per 14 CFR 91.171(a), no person may use VORs for IFR operations unless that equipment has been operationally checked within the preceding 30 days and was found to be within prescribed limits. The check must be logged with date, place, bearing error, and pilot signature.
9Under 14 CFR 91.171, what is the maximum permissible bearing error for a VOR receiver check using a VOT (VOR test facility) signal?
A.Plus or minus 2 degrees
B.Plus or minus 4 degrees
C.Plus or minus 6 degrees
D.Plus or minus 8 degrees
Explanation: Per 14 CFR 91.171(b)(1), when using a VOT, the maximum permissible bearing error is plus or minus 4 degrees. A VOT transmits an omnidirectional 360-degree radial; the CDI should center with the OBS at 360 with a FROM indication, or 180 with a TO indication. Dual VOR check tolerance is 4 degrees between receivers; ground checkpoint is 4 degrees; airborne checkpoint is 6 degrees.
10An airborne VOR checkpoint must agree with the published radial within what tolerance?
A.Plus or minus 2 degrees
B.Plus or minus 4 degrees
C.Plus or minus 6 degrees
D.Plus or minus 8 degrees
Explanation: Per 14 CFR 91.171(b)(3), an airborne VOR checkpoint tolerance is plus or minus 6 degrees. Compare this to ground-based checks: VOT and certified ground checkpoint are 4 degrees, dual-VOR cross-check is 4 degrees. Airborne checks allow slightly more tolerance because of position uncertainty.

About the FAA Instrument Rating Exam

The FAA Instrument Rating Airplane (IRA) knowledge test is required for anyone seeking an instrument-airplane rating under 14 CFR 61.65. The 60-question computer-based exam covers all areas of operation defined in the Instrument Rating Airplane Airman Certification Standards (FAA-S-ACS-8C), including preflight preparation, IFR clearances, navigation systems, instrument approach procedures, holding patterns, and emergency operations. Passing the knowledge test is a prerequisite for the practical test (checkride).

Questions

60 scored questions

Time Limit

2.5 hours (150 minutes)

Passing Score

70% (42 of 60 questions)

Exam Fee

$175 (FAA (Federal Aviation Administration) / PSI Testing Centers)

FAA Instrument Rating Exam Content Outline

20%

Preflight Preparation

Pilot qualifications under 14 CFR 61.65, aeromedical factors (hypoxia, spatial disorientation, IMSAFE/PAVE), weather information (METAR/TAF/AIRMET/SIGMET/PIREP/Convective SIGMET), and IFR cross-country flight planning per 14 CFR 91.167/91.169

10%

Preflight Procedures

Aircraft systems related to IFR operations, pitot-static system behavior with blocked ports, magnetic compass errors (ANDS/UNOS), required IFR equipment per 14 CFR 91.205 (GRABCARD), and IFR cockpit setup

20%

Air Traffic Control Clearances and Procedures

IFR clearance copy (CRAFT), required reports (AIM 5-3-3), holding procedures and entries (parallel/teardrop/direct), climb-via/descend-via SIDs and STARs, clearance void times, and ATC phraseology

10%

Flight by Reference to Instruments

Basic-T instrument scan, selective radial scan, partial-panel operations with failed AI/HI, recovery from unusual attitudes, and recognition/recovery from spatial disorientation

15%

Navigation Systems

VOR operations and checks per 14 CFR 91.171 (VOT/airborne/ground/dual-VOR tolerances), ILS components (localizer/glide slope/marker beacons), GPS and WAAS, RAIM predictions, DME arcs, and CDI sensitivity changes

15%

Instrument Approach Procedures

Precision (ILS, GLS) and nonprecision (LNAV, VOR, LOC, NDB) approaches, APV approaches (LPV, LNAV/VNAV, LP), procedure turns and NoPT routes, missed approaches, circling categories, and 14 CFR 91.175(c) visual reference requirements for descent below DA/MDA

5%

Emergency Operations

Lost-communication procedures per 14 CFR 91.185 (AVE F route, MEA altitude rule), pitot-static failures, partial panel operations, severe turbulence response, icing escape, TCAS resolution advisories, and emergency transponder codes (7500/7600/7700)

5%

Postflight Procedures

Securing the aircraft after IFR flight, logging instrument time per 14 CFR 61.51, filing PIREPs, and reviewing flight recorder data for self-assessment

How to Pass the FAA Instrument Rating Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 70% (42 of 60 questions)
  • Exam length: 60 questions
  • Time limit: 2.5 hours (150 minutes)
  • Exam fee: $175

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

FAA Instrument Rating Study Tips from Top Performers

1Study 14 CFR Part 61 and Part 91 regulations cold — especially 91.167 (fuel), 91.169 (alternate), 91.171 (VOR check), 91.175 (descent below DA/MDA), 91.185 (lost comm), and 91.205 (required IFR equipment)
2Master the weather products inside-out: METAR/TAF decoding, AIRMET (Sierra/Tango/Zulu), SIGMET, Convective SIGMET, PIREP, surface analysis charts, and prog charts
3Memorize the holding entry geometry (parallel/teardrop/direct based on 70/110-degree sector rule) and standard timing (1 minute at/below 14,000, 1.5 minutes above)
4Practice the basic-T scan and partial-panel flying mental models — know which instruments substitute for AI/HI failure (turn coordinator + compass for bank; altimeter/VSI/ASI for pitch)
5Use the FAA Instrument Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-15B) and Instrument Procedures Handbook (FAA-H-8083-16B) along with the FAA-CT-8080-3F testing supplement for chart and figure interpretation

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the FAA Instrument Rating Airplane knowledge test (IRA)?

The IRA is a 60-question, computer-based multiple-choice exam administered at FAA-authorized PSI testing centers. It covers all areas of operation defined in the Instrument Rating Airplane Airman Certification Standards (FAA-S-ACS-8C). You have 2.5 hours to complete the test and need a score of 70% or higher (42 of 60) to pass. The test fee is approximately $175.

What are the eligibility requirements for the Instrument Rating?

Per 14 CFR 61.65, you must hold at least a current Private Pilot Certificate with airplane category rating (or apply concurrently), be able to read/speak/write/understand English, and meet aeronautical experience requirements: 50 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC (at least 10 in an airplane), and 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time, of which 15 hours must be received from an authorized instructor with a CFII rating.

How long are IRA knowledge test results valid?

Your knowledge test results are valid for 24 calendar months. You must pass the practical test (checkride) within this period, or you will need to retake the knowledge test. Once issued, the instrument rating does not expire, but you must maintain currency under 14 CFR 61.57(c) by performing 6 approaches, holding procedures, and tasks of intercepting/tracking courses within the preceding 6 calendar months.

What privileges does an Instrument Rating provide?

An instrument rating authorizes the pilot to operate an aircraft under instrument flight rules (IFR) and in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC). This includes flying in clouds, in low visibility, and on IFR flight plans through controlled airspace, allowing utility flying in weather that would ground VFR-only pilots. The rating applies to the aircraft category for which it was issued.

What happens if I fail the IRA knowledge test?

If you fail, you must receive additional instruction from an authorized instructor on the areas you missed. The instructor must endorse your logbook certifying you are ready to retest. You then present the failed Airman Knowledge Test Report (AKTR) along with the new endorsement when scheduling your retake. The $175 fee applies again for each attempt. There is no limit on retake attempts.