Free NMAT (Philippines) Exam Flashcards
Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the National Medical Admission Test (NMAT) — Philippines. See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.
How many items does the Online NMAT contain, and how are they distributed?
240 multiple-choice items with four or five options each, split into eight subtests of 30 items. Part 1 (Mental Ability) holds Verbal, Inductive Reasoning, Quantitative and Perceptual Acuity. Part 2 (Academic Proficiency) holds Biology, Physics, Social Science and Chemistry.
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About These NMAT (Philippines) Flashcards
These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the National Medical Admission Test (NMAT) — Philippines. Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.
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Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.
How many items does the Online NMAT contain, and how are they distributed?
240 multiple-choice items with four or five options each, split into eight subtests of 30 items. Part 1 (Mental Ability) holds Verbal, Inductive Reasoning, Quantitative and Perceptual Acuity. Part 2 (Academic Proficiency) holds Biology, Physics, Social Science and Chemistry.
How much time does each part of the Online NMAT allow?
Part 1 allows 2 hours 15 minutes for its 120 items and Part 2 allows 1 hour 30 minutes for its 120 items, so testing time totals 3 hours 45 minutes. The timer starts on the first item and restarts for every section.
What are the five timed sections of an Online NMAT sitting?
Important Reminders and Certifying Statement, 12 minutes; Part 1, 2 hours 15 minutes; test break, 10 minutes; Part 2, 1 hour 30 minutes; End Test Page, 1 minute. The whole session runs about 4 hours 8 minutes.
How is a single NMAT subtest score expressed?
As a standard score ranging from 200 to 800. Raw scores are converted so forms of differing difficulty stay comparable. The norm group has a mean of 500 and a standard deviation of 100, so 600 sits one standard deviation above the norm.
Which three composite scores does the NMAT report?
APT, the composite for the four Part 1 subtests; SA, the composite for the four Part 2 subtests; and the General Performance Score (GPS), the full composite derived from all eight subtests. Subtests and composites are standard scores; the GPS is the score reported with the percentile rank that schools evaluate.
What does the NMAT percentile rank tell you?
The GPS percentile rank runs from 1- to 99+ with a midpoint of 50. It states the percentage of NMAT examinees whose scores were the same as or lower than yours. It is a relative standing, not a percentage of items answered correctly.
What minimum NMAT percentile rank does CHED prescribe for medical school?
40. Under CHED Memorandum Order No. 18 series of 2016, the school's own cutoff or the Commission's 40 percentile rank applies, whichever is higher. Competitive Philippine medical schools routinely publish cutoffs well above 40.
How recently must the NMAT have been taken when you enter medical school?
Within two years. CHED Memorandum Order No. 18 series of 2016 requires the NMAT to be taken not more than two years from the time of admission to medical school, so an older score cannot support enrolment.
Who is eligible to register for the NMAT?
College graduates, graduating college students, second-year students in accelerated medicine programs such as UP INTARMED and UST LEAPMed, previous examinees who missed a cutoff, and candidates with valid eligibility who want to improve their scores.
When is the Online NMAT offered and how does test access work?
CEM usually schedules administrations in October-November, January-February, and April-May, all on Philippine Standard Time. The test invitation with your link is emailed 2 to 3 days before the cycle's first test date, and a 1.5-hour access window covers system check and identity verification.
What two item types make up the NMAT Verbal subtest?
Word analogies and reading comprehension, across 30 items with a recommended 30 minutes. Passages are drawn from published material on social, scientific, medical, philosophical and literary topics, and the items measure verbal reasoning, inference and analysis.
What is the most reliable first step on an NMAT analogy item?
Build a precise bridge sentence linking the first pair, then apply it to the options. SCALPEL is to SURGEON as the defining tool is to its user. A vague bridge such as "they go together" lets two options survive; a precise one leaves only the correct pair.
Name the analogy relationship types that recur most on reasoning tests.
Tool to user, part to whole, cause to effect, category to member, degree of intensity, function, antonym and synonym, and worker to product. Naming the relationship before reading the options stops you from choosing a merely topically related word.
How do main-idea, detail and inference questions differ in reading comprehension?
A main-idea answer covers the whole passage without exceeding it. A detail answer is stated explicitly in the text. An inference answer is unstated but follows necessarily from the text. All three must rest on the passage alone, never on outside medical knowledge.
How can word parts rescue an unfamiliar term on the Verbal subtest?
Decompose it. The suffix -ectomy means surgical removal (appendectomy), -otomy means cutting into (tracheotomy), and -ostomy means creating an opening (colostomy). Prefixes work the same way: hyper- above, hypo- below, brady- slow, tachy- fast.
What item types compose the NMAT Inductive Reasoning subtest?
Number series, letter series, figure series and figure grouping, across 30 items with a recommended 35 minutes, second only to Quantitative's 40 in Part 1. The items measure induction: perceiving relationships among stimuli and inferring the general rule.
What is the standard method for cracking a number series?
Write the differences between consecutive terms. A constant first difference means an arithmetic rule; a constant second difference means a quadratic one; a constant ratio means a geometric rule. In 3, 6, 12, 24 the ratio is 2, so the next term is 48.
How do you decode a letter series quickly?
Convert letters to their alphabet positions, with A = 1 through Z = 26, then treat it as a number series. B, E, H, K becomes 2, 5, 8, 11, a step of 3, so the next letter is position 14, which is N.
What should you check when a series has no obvious single pattern?
Test for two interleaved sequences. In 2, 9, 4, 12, 6, 15 the odd positions rise by 2 and the even positions rise by 3, so the next term is 8. Alternating rules are the most common reason a straightforward difference check fails.
How do you approach a figure grouping or odd-one-out item?
Identify the single attribute shared by all but one figure. Test one property at a time: number of sides, number of enclosed regions, shading, symmetry, line count, and whether the shape is open or closed. Stop at the first property that isolates exactly one figure.
What item types and constraints define the NMAT Quantitative subtest?
Fundamental operations, problem solving and data interpretation, across 30 items with a recommended 40 minutes. Physical calculators are prohibited, so all arithmetic is done mentally or on authorized easily-erased writing materials.
How do you compute percent change, and why is it not symmetric?
Percent change equals (new minus old) divided by old, times 100. Going from 40 to 50 is a 25% increase, but going from 50 back to 40 is a 20% decrease. The base is the original value, and the base changes when the direction reverses.
How do you tell a direct proportion from an inverse proportion?
In a direct proportion the ratio stays constant, so both quantities rise together. In an inverse proportion the product stays constant. If 4 workers finish a task in 6 hours, the product is 24 worker-hours, so 3 workers need 8 hours.
What is the fastest way to handle an average problem?
Work with totals, not means. Total equals mean times count. A student averaging 80 across 4 tests has 320 points; an 82 average over 5 tests needs 410 points, so the fifth score must be 90.
What traps appear in NMAT data interpretation items?
Read the axis labels, units and scale before the question, and separate percentages from absolute counts. A share can rise while the underlying count falls if the total shrinks. Check whether a chart shows cumulative totals or values for a single period.
What item types make up the NMAT Perceptual Acuity subtest?
Hidden figure, mirror image and identical information, across 30 items with a recommended 30 minutes. These are visual recognition tasks deliberately complicated by distractions, so accuracy at speed matters more than deep analysis.
What is the efficient strategy for a hidden figure item?
Anchor on the target's most distinctive feature, usually its longest edge or its sharpest angle, and search the complex figure for that feature alone. The embedded target keeps its size and proportions, so a candidate region with the wrong scale can be rejected immediately.
What does a mirror image preserve, and what does it reverse?
A reflection across a vertical axis reverses left and right while preserving top and bottom, vertical order and size. Letters symmetric about that axis, such as A, H, I, M, O, T, U, V, W, X and Y, look unchanged, which is why they are poor checkpoints.
How do rotation and reflection differ when comparing two figures?
Rotation preserves handedness: a rotated figure can be turned back onto the original. Reflection reverses handedness, so a mirrored asymmetric figure can never be rotated onto the original in the plane. Checking handedness settles most rotate-versus-mirror items in one step.
What is the reliable method for identical-information items?
Compare position by position in small chunks rather than reading for meaning, and stop at the first mismatch. Watch the pairs that are engineered to be confused: 0 and O, 1 and l, 5 and S, 2 and Z, and rn read as m.
Where do the three stages of aerobic respiration occur, and what is the ATP yield?
Glycolysis runs in the cytosol, the Krebs cycle in the mitochondrial matrix, and the electron transport chain on the inner mitochondrial membrane. Complete aerobic oxidation of one glucose yields roughly 30 to 32 ATP; glycolysis alone nets only 2.
What ratios result from monohybrid and dihybrid crosses of heterozygotes?
Aa x Aa gives a 3:1 phenotypic ratio and a 1:2:1 genotypic ratio. AaBb x AaBb, with independent assortment and complete dominance, gives a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio. The genotypic ratio is always the more informative one.
Which adult structures arise from each embryonic germ layer?
Ectoderm forms the nervous system, epidermis, hair and nails. Mesoderm forms muscle, bone, blood, the heart, kidneys and gonads. Endoderm forms the lining of the gut and respiratory tract plus the liver and pancreas.
How does negative feedback control blood glucose?
Rising glucose triggers insulin from pancreatic beta cells, which drives uptake and storage and lowers glucose. Falling glucose triggers glucagon from alpha cells, which drives glycogen breakdown and raises it. Each response opposes the change that produced it.
How much energy passes from one trophic level to the next?
About 10%. The rest is lost mainly as metabolic heat, so biomass and available energy shrink sharply up the chain. That loss is why food chains rarely exceed four or five trophic levels and why producer biomass usually exceeds consumer biomass.
State Newton's second law and the difference between mass and weight.
Net force equals mass times acceleration, F = ma. Mass is the quantity of matter and is the same everywhere. Weight is the gravitational force on that mass, W = mg, with g about 9.8 m/s squared on Earth, so weight changes with location.
State the first law of thermodynamics and what happens during a phase change.
The change in internal energy equals heat added minus work done by the system. Sensible heating follows Q = mc times the temperature change. During a phase change the temperature stays constant while latent heat breaks or forms intermolecular bonds.
What stays constant when a wave passes into a new medium?
Frequency. The wave equation v = f times wavelength still holds, so when speed changes at the boundary the wavelength changes in proportion. Frequency is fixed by the source, which is why refraction bends light without changing its colour.
How do series and parallel circuits differ?
Ohm's law gives V = IR. In series, resistances add and current is the same through every element while voltages divide. In parallel, the reciprocals of resistance add so total resistance falls below the smallest branch, and voltage is the same across every branch.
What does the photoelectric effect demonstrate about light?
Light is quantized. Photon energy is E = hf, with Planck's constant about 6.626 x 10 to the minus 34 joule seconds. Below the metal's threshold frequency no electrons are emitted no matter how intense the beam, which wave theory alone cannot explain.
How does classical conditioning differ from operant conditioning?
Classical conditioning, from Pavlov, pairs two stimuli so a neutral stimulus triggers an involuntary reflex. Operant conditioning, from Skinner, links a voluntary behaviour to its consequence. Reinforcement makes a behaviour more likely; punishment makes it less likely.
List Piaget's four stages of cognitive development and their markers.
Sensorimotor, birth to about 2, ends with object permanence. Preoperational, about 2 to 7, marked by egocentrism and symbolic play. Concrete operational, about 7 to 11, brings conservation and logical reasoning about concrete things. Formal operational, about 11 onward, brings abstract and hypothetical reasoning.
What are the three stages of memory, and what limits short-term memory?
Sensory memory holds raw input briefly, short-term or working memory holds roughly seven items give or take two for about 15 to 30 seconds, and long-term memory has no known practical limit. Chunking raises effective short-term capacity; rehearsal moves material into long-term storage.
Name the three major theoretical paradigms in sociology.
Structural functionalism, associated with Durkheim, treats society as interdependent parts serving stability. Conflict theory, associated with Marx, treats society as competition over scarce resources. Symbolic interactionism, associated with Mead and Blumer, studies meaning built through everyday interaction.
Distinguish enculturation, acculturation, ethnocentrism and cultural relativism.
Enculturation is learning your own culture; acculturation is change from sustained contact with another culture. Ethnocentrism judges other cultures by your own standards. Cultural relativism understands a practice within its own cultural context, which is the standard anthropological stance.
What is a mole, and how do you convert to and from it?
One mole is 6.022 x 10 to the 23rd particles, Avogadro's number. Moles equal mass divided by molar mass in grams per mole. One mole of an ideal gas occupies 22.4 litres at standard temperature and pressure, 0 degrees Celsius and 1 atmosphere.
How is pH defined, and what does one pH unit represent?
pH is the negative base-10 logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration. At 25 degrees Celsius, pH 7 is neutral and pH plus pOH equals 14. Each whole pH unit is a tenfold change in hydrogen ion concentration, so pH 4 is 100 times more acidic than pH 6.
What is the working relationship in an acid-base titration?
At the equivalence point the moles of transferable hydrogen ions equal the moles of hydroxide, so molarity times volume times the number of transferable protons is equal on both sides. The endpoint is where the indicator changes colour and only approximates the equivalence point.
Identify the functional groups that appear most often in organic questions.
Alcohol carries -OH, aldehyde carries -CHO at a chain end, ketone carries a carbonyl inside the chain, carboxylic acid carries -COOH, amine carries -NH2, ester carries -COO- between two carbons, and ether carries an oxygen bridging two carbons.
Name the four classes of biological macromolecule and their monomers.
Carbohydrates are built from monosaccharides, proteins from amino acids joined by peptide bonds, and nucleic acids from nucleotides. Lipids are not true polymers; triglycerides and phospholipids assemble from glycerol and fatty acids. Each polymer forms by dehydration synthesis and breaks by hydrolysis.
Frequently Asked Questions
Is there a passing score on the NMAT?
No. CEM converts raw scores to standard scores from 200 to 800 against a norm group with a mean of 500 and a standard deviation of 100. The full composite, the General Performance Score, is reported with a percentile rank from 1- to 99+. Medical schools compare that percentile rank against their own cutoff or the CHED minimum of 40, whichever is higher.
How many questions are on the NMAT and how long does it take?
The Online NMAT has 240 multiple-choice items with four or five options each. Part 1 holds 120 items in 2 hours 15 minutes and Part 2 holds 120 items in 1 hour 30 minutes, so testing time totals 3 hours 45 minutes. The sitting is delivered as five timed sections: a 12-minute reminders and certifying-statement page, Part 1, a 10-minute break, Part 2, and a 1-minute end page.
How many times can I retake the NMAT, and is there a waiting period?
There is no cap. CEM's NMAT FAQ states there is no limit to the number of times an applicant may take the NMAT, and its eligibility list includes candidates who missed a cutoff and candidates with valid eligibility who want better scores. You may register for only one test day per testing cycle, so a retake means the next administration; the Online NMAT usually runs in October-November, January-February, and April-May. Each attempt needs a fresh registration and payment, and you must not reuse a previous application number.
How long do NMAT scores stay valid?
Under CHED Memorandum Order No. 18 series of 2016, the NMAT must be taken not more than two years from the time of admission to medical school, with a percentile score equal to or higher than the one prescribed by the school or the Commission, whichever is higher. Time your sitting so the score still falls inside that two-year window when you enroll.
When are NMAT results released?
An electronic copy of results is available 20 CEM business days after the last date of the test administration, and it is for your own guidance rather than admission. The official printed Examinee Report Form is mailed to your Philippine address about six weeks after the last test date. CEM also sends a Masterlist of Test Results to every Philippine medical school, CHED, the Higher Education Regional Offices and APMC, and those offices treat the masterlist as the only official score record.
Are these official CEM NMAT questions?
No. These are original OpenExamPrep flashcards built from the published NMAT structure, subtest descriptions and scoring rules. CEM warns that it does not authorize the sale of reviewers or study materials containing alleged actual NMAT items, and it supplies its own practice set and demo test through your registration account.
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