Free CCI RCIS Exam Flashcards
Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the Cardiovascular Credentialing International Registered Cardiovascular Invasive Specialist (RCIS) Examination. See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.
What must be confirmed during the pre-procedure time-out?
Correct patient, planned procedure and site, consent, allergies, relevant imaging or implants, and readiness of the team and required equipment.
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About These CCI RCIS Flashcards
These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the Cardiovascular Credentialing International Registered Cardiovascular Invasive Specialist (RCIS) Examination. Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.
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Complete Flashcard Reference
Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.
What must be confirmed during the pre-procedure time-out?
Correct patient, planned procedure and site, consent, allergies, relevant imaging or implants, and readiness of the team and required equipment.
Why review renal function before iodinated contrast?
Impaired kidney function increases risk from contrast exposure and may change hydration, contrast-volume, medication, or procedural planning.
What is the purpose of a radial collateral-circulation assessment?
To evaluate hand perfusion pathways before radial access and identify findings that require operator review or an alternate plan.
What should a baseline cath-lab assessment establish?
The patient's usual rhythm, vital signs, symptoms, pulses, neurovascular status, labs, allergies, medications, and level of consciousness.
What does the aortic pressure waveform represent?
Left-ventricular ejection creates the systolic rise; aortic valve closure produces the dicrotic notch before diastolic runoff.
What creates the right-atrial a wave?
Atrial contraction. It is absent in atrial fibrillation and may become prominent when the atrium contracts against increased resistance.
What creates the right-atrial v wave?
Venous filling of the right atrium while the tricuspid valve is closed during ventricular systole.
How is cardiac output calculated by the Fick principle?
Oxygen consumption divided by the arterial-minus-mixed-venous oxygen content difference.
What can an oxygen-saturation step-up indicate?
A left-to-right shunt entering at or before the chamber where a reproducible rise in oxygen saturation first appears.
What does pulmonary capillary wedge pressure approximate?
Left-atrial pressure when the catheter is correctly wedged and there is no important obstruction between pulmonary capillaries and the left atrium.
What pressure finding suggests aortic stenosis?
A systolic pressure gradient between the left ventricle and aorta during pullback, interpreted with waveform quality and flow conditions.
What does FFR compare?
Distal coronary pressure with aortic pressure during maximal hyperemia to estimate the physiologic effect of a coronary stenosis.
How does iFR differ from FFR?
iFR uses a specific diastolic wave-free period without routine pharmacologic hyperemia; FFR is measured during maximal hyperemia.
What is the main difference between IVUS and OCT?
IVUS uses ultrasound and penetrates deeper; OCT uses light, provides higher surface resolution, and requires blood clearance for imaging.
What does TIMI flow grade describe?
The degree of antegrade coronary blood flow beyond a lesion, from no perfusion to normal flow.
What coronary territory is usually supplied by the LAD?
The anterior wall and septum, with exact territory depending on anatomy and branch distribution.
What coronary territory is usually supplied by the circumflex?
The lateral left-ventricular wall through obtuse marginal branches; contribution to the inferior wall depends on dominance.
What determines coronary dominance?
Which coronary artery gives rise to the posterior descending artery, not which vessel is physically largest.
What does ST-segment elevation suggest in the cath-lab context?
Acute transmural injury or another ST-elevation cause; correlate immediately with symptoms, leads involved, hemodynamics, and angiographic findings.
What is the purpose of the square-wave test?
To assess the dynamic response of a fluid-filled pressure system and identify underdamping or overdamping.
How does an overdamped pressure system affect a waveform?
It blunts detail, tends to underestimate systolic pressure, and can overestimate diastolic pressure.
Why must the pressure transducer be leveled and zeroed?
Leveling establishes the reference height; zeroing removes atmospheric pressure so displayed values reflect intravascular pressure.
How does distance reduce radiation exposure?
Increasing distance from the radiation source and scatter field sharply reduces exposure; maximize distance whenever the task permits.
What does ALARA require in fluoroscopy?
Keep radiation as low as reasonably achievable through time, distance, shielding, collimation, positioning, and appropriate imaging settings.
Why is meticulous manifold preparation essential?
Air or clot introduced through the system can embolize; all connections must be secure, flushed, and continuously observed.
What is balloon angioplasty intended to do?
Enlarge a narrowed vessel lumen by controlled balloon expansion, often as preparation for or optimization of stent placement.
What is the purpose of a coronary stent?
To scaffold the vessel and maintain lumen gain after lesion preparation or balloon dilation.
What does atherectomy accomplish?
It modifies or removes selected plaque, often calcified tissue, to improve device delivery and lesion expansion.
What is no-reflow?
Inadequate microvascular perfusion despite opening the epicardial vessel, often associated with distal embolization or microvascular injury.
What is coronary dissection?
A tear separating layers of the vessel wall that may create a false lumen and compromise flow.
What finding raises concern for coronary perforation?
Contrast exiting the vessel or collecting outside its expected lumen, especially with new hypotension or pericardial effusion.
What does activated clotting time monitor?
The anticoagulant effect of procedural therapy at the point of care; targets depend on the procedure, device, and medication strategy.
Why is dual antiplatelet therapy important after many coronary stents?
It reduces platelet-mediated stent thrombosis risk; regimen and duration are determined by the clinical and bleeding-risk context.
What is the purpose of a distal protection device?
To capture or limit embolic debris traveling downstream during selected vascular interventions.
What does an intra-aortic balloon pump do?
It inflates in diastole to augment coronary perfusion and deflates before systole to reduce afterload.
What is the basic role of an Impella device?
It provides temporary mechanical circulatory support by moving blood from the left ventricle into the aorta.
What is the purpose of a temporary transvenous pacemaker?
To provide short-term ventricular stimulation when clinically significant bradycardia or conduction failure requires support.
What does pericardiocentesis treat?
Hemodynamically significant pericardial fluid, including tamponade, by draining fluid from the pericardial space.
What is TAVR?
Transcatheter aortic valve replacement: catheter-based implantation of a prosthetic valve for selected patients with aortic valve disease.
What does a left-atrial-appendage closure device target?
The appendage where thrombus commonly forms in atrial fibrillation, reducing embolic risk in appropriately selected patients.
Why is vascular-access imaging or ultrasound useful?
It helps select an appropriate entry site and avoid adjacent structures, reducing failed access and complication risk.
What are classic signs of cardiac tamponade?
Falling blood pressure, rising filling pressures, tachycardia, and worsening perfusion; confirm rapidly with hemodynamics and imaging.
What is the first priority in ventricular fibrillation?
Recognize pulseless arrest, activate the emergency response, begin high-quality CPR, and deliver prompt defibrillation per protocol.
What should be suspected with sudden hypotension after femoral access?
Bleeding, including retroperitoneal hemorrhage, along with tamponade, arrhythmia, ischemia, reaction, or other procedural causes.
What is an anaphylactic contrast reaction?
A rapid systemic hypersensitivity reaction with airway, breathing, or circulatory compromise requiring immediate emergency treatment.
What is cardiogenic shock?
Critical tissue hypoperfusion caused primarily by inadequate cardiac pump function despite sufficient circulating volume.
What must a cath lab emergency role assignment achieve?
Clear leadership and simultaneous coverage of compressions, airway, defibrillation, medications, procedure support, documentation, and communication.
What should be assessed after radial hemostasis is applied?
Bleeding control plus hand perfusion, sensation, movement, pain, and device pressure, with gradual adjustment per protocol.
What finding suggests a femoral pseudoaneurysm?
A painful pulsatile access-site mass or bruit after arterial access; protect the site and obtain prompt clinical evaluation.
What makes a safe post-procedure handoff?
Procedure and access details, medications and contrast, hemostasis plan, pulses, complications, vital trends, restrictions, and required monitoring.
Frequently Asked Questions
How many questions are on the RCIS exam?
The current CCI RCIS exam has 170 items: 150 scored and 20 unscored. It includes traditional multiple choice plus multiple-response, hot-spot, and drag-and-place formats.
How much time is provided for the RCIS exam?
Total seat time is three hours. CCI allocates 2 hours 50 minutes to the exam questions and 10 minutes to the tutorial and post-exam survey.
What is the current RCIS pass rate?
CCI reports a 75% first-time RCIS pass rate for 2025. Separately, a total scaled score of 650 is required to pass; the scaled score is not a percentage correct.
What is the RCIS retake policy?
A candidate may submit a new application after failing, but must wait 45 days from the failed test date before testing again. The same waiting period applies to later failures.
How do these flashcards match the RCIS matrix?
The 50 cards follow CCI's official task weights: 4 pre-procedure, 20 diagnostic, 17 interventional, 6 emergency, and 3 post-procedure cards. The final whole-card remainder is tied between the 13% emergency and 5% post-procedure domains, so this set assigns it to post-procedure.
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