299+ Free OR MPJE Practice Questions

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Under the Controlled Substances Act (CSA), which DEA schedule includes drugs with the highest potential for abuse and no currently accepted medical use?

Schedule I

Schedule II

Schedule III

Schedule IV

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Free MPJE Practice Test by State 2026: 5,000+ Pharmacy Law Questions18 min read

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: OR MPJE Exam

120

Exam Questions

100 scored + 20 pretest

Passing Score

Scaled score

2.5 hrs

Time Limit

NABP

CE Hours

Per renewal period

7-day supply

Initial Opioid Limit

Oregon acute pain

1,500 hours

Intern Hours Required

OR Board

The OR MPJE covers federal pharmacy law (DEA, FDA, CSA, HIPAA) and Oregon-specific regulations including OR PDMP, 30 CE hours per biennial renewal, independent pharmacist prescribing of hormonal contraceptives (ORS 689.689), tobacco cessation prescribing, pharmacist immunization authority for patients 3+, and OTC naloxone access. The Oregon Board of Pharmacy regulates pharmacy practice.

Sample OR MPJE Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your OR MPJE exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 299+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the Controlled Substances Act (CSA), which DEA schedule includes drugs with the highest potential for abuse and no currently accepted medical use?

A.Schedule I

B.Schedule II

C.Schedule III

D.Schedule IV

Explanation: Schedule I substances have a high potential for abuse, no currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States, and a lack of accepted safety for use under medical supervision. Examples include heroin, LSD, and MDMA. Pharmacists cannot dispense Schedule I substances under normal practice.

2A DEA Form 222 is required for the transfer of which schedule of controlled substances between registrants?

A.Schedule II only

B.Schedules II and III

C.Schedules III through V

D.All controlled substances

Explanation: DEA Form 222 (or its electronic equivalent under CSOS) is required for the distribution and transfer of Schedule II controlled substances between DEA registrants. Schedules III-V can be transferred using invoices with specific record-keeping requirements.

3Under federal law, what is the maximum number of refills allowed for a Schedule III controlled substance prescription?

A.No refills allowed

B.Up to 3 refills within 6 months

C.Up to 5 refills within 6 months

D.Up to 5 refills within 1 year

Explanation: Federal law allows up to 5 refills for Schedule III-V controlled substance prescriptions within 6 months from the date the prescription was issued. Schedule II prescriptions cannot be refilled. After 6 months or 5 refills, a new prescription is required.

4The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 established which key distinction in drug classification?

A.Generic vs. brand-name drugs

B.Prescription (legend) vs. over-the-counter drugs

C.Controlled vs. non-controlled substances

D.Biological vs. chemical drugs

Explanation: The Durham-Humphrey Amendment to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) established the distinction between prescription (legend) drugs and over-the-counter (OTC) drugs. It required that certain drugs be dispensed only with a valid prescription and bear the legend 'Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription.'

5Under the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA), which of the following medications is EXEMPT from child-resistant packaging requirements?

A.Acetaminophen tablets

B.Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets

C.Amoxicillin suspension

D.Hydrocodone/acetaminophen tablets

Explanation: Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets are exempt from child-resistant packaging under the PPPA because they require immediate access during cardiac emergencies. Other exemptions include oral contraceptives in manufacturer dispensing packages, certain hormone replacement therapy, and isosorbide dinitrate sublingual tablets.

6What is the primary purpose of the FDA's Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS) program?

A.To reduce drug manufacturing costs

B.To ensure the benefits of a drug outweigh its risks

C.To speed up the drug approval process

D.To establish drug pricing guidelines

Explanation: REMS are drug safety programs required by the FDA for certain medications with serious safety concerns. They help ensure the benefits of a medication outweigh its risks. REMS may include medication guides, communication plans, and Elements to Assure Safe Use (ETASU) such as prescriber certification and patient registries.

7Under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), what is the maximum amount of pseudoephedrine a customer can purchase in a 30-day period?

A.3.6 grams

B.7.5 grams

C.9 grams

D.15 grams

Explanation: The CMEA limits pseudoephedrine purchases to 3.6 grams per day and 9 grams per 30-day period for retail transactions. Mail-order purchases are limited to 7.5 grams per 30-day period. Retailers must keep a logbook of all pseudoephedrine sales and products must be kept behind the counter.

8A pharmacist receives a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance dated 45 days ago. Under federal law, this prescription:

A.Must be filled within 30 days

B.May be filled as there is no federal time limit

C.Cannot be filled because it has expired

D.May only be partially filled

Explanation: Federal law does not impose a specific time limit on filling Schedule II prescriptions. However, many states, including New Jersey, may impose their own time limits. The pharmacist must use professional judgment to determine whether the prescription is still valid based on the patient's needs and state law requirements.

9Under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), which of the following is NOT considered protected health information (PHI)?

A.A patient's prescription history

B.A patient's date of birth

C.De-identified aggregate prescription data

D.A patient's home address

Explanation: De-identified data is not considered PHI under HIPAA. PHI includes individually identifiable health information such as names, dates, addresses, Social Security numbers, and medical records. Data that has been properly de-identified according to HIPAA standards (Safe Harbor or Expert Determination method) is not subject to HIPAA restrictions.

10Under the Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA), what must be included with each transaction of a prescription drug between trading partners?

A.Only the drug name and NDC number

B.Transaction information, transaction history, and transaction statement

C.DEA Form 222 and invoice

D.Certificate of analysis and lot number only

Explanation: The DSCSA requires three types of documentation for each prescription drug transaction: transaction information (drug details, date, entities involved), transaction history (previous ownership chain), and transaction statement (attestation that the trading partner meets DSCSA requirements). This supports drug supply chain integrity and helps prevent counterfeit drugs.

About the OR MPJE Exam

The OR MPJE tests knowledge of federal pharmacy law and Oregon-specific pharmacy regulations. Required alongside the NAPLEX for pharmacist licensure in Oregon.

Questions

120 scored questions

Time Limit

2.5 hours

Passing Score

75 (scaled score)

Exam Fee

$250 (NABP / Oregon Board of Pharmacy)

OR MPJE Exam Content Outline

22%

Licensure & Personnel

Pharmacist qualifications, intern/technician requirements, license renewal, disciplinary actions

33%

Pharmacist Practice

Prescription requirements, counseling, collaborative practice, immunizations

24%

Dispensing Requirements

Generic substitution, prescription transfers, DUR, labeling, OR PDMP compliance

21%

Pharmacy Operations

Controlled substance records, compounding, pharmacy permits, automated dispensing

How to Pass the OR MPJE Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 75 (scaled score)
Exam length: 120 questions
Time limit: 2.5 hours
Exam fee: $250

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

OR MPJE Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master ORS Chapter 689 (Pharmacy Practice Act) and OAR Chapter 855 and Oregon pharmacy regulations

2Know OR PDMP (Oregon Prescription Drug Monitoring Program) requirements for controlled substance dispensing

3Study Oregon CE requirements: 30 contact hours per biennial renewal with 2 hours of pharmacy law

4Understand Oregon pharmacist-to-technician ratios: 1:2 (community), higher ratios possible with Board approval

5Review Oregon opioid prescribing limits: 7-day supply

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the OR MPJE exam format?

The OR MPJE is a computer-adaptive test with 120 questions (100 scored, 20 pretest). You have 2.5 hours. A scaled score of 75 or higher is required to pass.

What Oregon-specific topics are tested?

Key topics include ORS Chapter 689 (Pharmacy Practice Act) and OAR Chapter 855, the OR PDMP (Oregon Prescription Drug Monitoring Program), 30 contact hours per biennial renewal with 2 hours of pharmacy law, 7-day supply initial opioid limit, pharmacist immunization authority for patients 3+ with appropriate training, and naloxone access provisions.

How do I register for the OR MPJE?

Register through NABP at nabp.pharmacy. Create an e-Profile, apply for the OR MPJE, pay fees ($100 application + $150 exam), and schedule at a Pearson VUE center.

What happens if I fail the OR MPJE?

You must wait at least 30 days before retaking. Reapplication and fees are required for each attempt.

How long should I study for the OR MPJE?

Most candidates study 2-4 weeks. Focus on ORS Chapter 689 (Pharmacy Practice Act) and OAR Chapter 855, federal law, and scenario-based practice questions.

Does Oregon require EPCS?

Oregon permits but does not mandate electronic prescribing for controlled substances. E-prescriptions must comply with DEA EPCS requirements under 21 CFR Part 1311.