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Exam Review

Key Facts: TN MPJE Exam

120

Questions

100 scored + 20 pretest

Pass/Fail

Result Reported

NABP — no scaled score

2.5h

Exam Time

Pearson VUE

6:1

Tech Ratio

TN Board rule

30h/2yr

CE Required

TN biennial (15 live)

$270

Total Fees

NABP 2026 ($100+$170)

The TN MPJE covers federal pharmacy law and Tennessee-specific regulations under the NABP Competency Statements (Licensure/Personnel 22%, Pharmacist Practice 33%, Dispensing 24%, Operations 21%). High-yield Tennessee topics include CSMD mandatory checks for opioids and benzodiazepines, 6:1 technician ratio with certified technician exemptions, NPLEx pseudoephedrine tracking, Tennessee Together opioid supply limits, naloxone standing orders, 30 CE hours per 2-year cycle (at least 15 live), and Board authority under TCA Title 63.

Sample TN MPJE Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the TN MPJE exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 331+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the Controlled Substances Act (CSA), which DEA schedule includes drugs with the highest potential for abuse and no currently accepted medical use?
A.Schedule I
B.Schedule II
C.Schedule III
D.Schedule IV
Explanation: Schedule I substances have a high potential for abuse, no currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States, and a lack of accepted safety for use under medical supervision. Examples include heroin, LSD, and MDMA. Pharmacists cannot dispense Schedule I substances under normal practice.
2A DEA Form 222 is required for the transfer of which schedule of controlled substances between registrants?
A.Schedule II only
B.Schedules II and III
C.Schedules III through V
D.All controlled substances
Explanation: DEA Form 222 (or its electronic equivalent under CSOS) is required for the distribution and transfer of Schedule II controlled substances between DEA registrants. Schedules III-V can be transferred using invoices with specific record-keeping requirements.
3Under federal law, what is the maximum number of refills allowed for a Schedule III controlled substance prescription?
A.No refills allowed
B.Up to 3 refills within 6 months
C.Up to 5 refills within 6 months
D.Up to 5 refills within 1 year
Explanation: Federal law allows up to 5 refills for Schedule III-V controlled substance prescriptions within 6 months from the date the prescription was issued. Schedule II prescriptions cannot be refilled. After 6 months or 5 refills, a new prescription is required.
4The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 established which key distinction in drug classification?
A.Generic vs. brand-name drugs
B.Prescription (legend) vs. over-the-counter drugs
C.Controlled vs. non-controlled substances
D.Biological vs. chemical drugs
Explanation: The Durham-Humphrey Amendment to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) established the distinction between prescription (legend) drugs and over-the-counter (OTC) drugs. It required that certain drugs be dispensed only with a valid prescription and bear the legend 'Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription.'
5Under the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA), which of the following medications is EXEMPT from child-resistant packaging requirements?
A.Acetaminophen tablets
B.Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets
C.Amoxicillin suspension
D.Hydrocodone/acetaminophen tablets
Explanation: Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets are exempt from child-resistant packaging under the PPPA because they require immediate access during cardiac emergencies. Other exemptions include oral contraceptives in manufacturer dispensing packages, certain hormone replacement therapy, and isosorbide dinitrate sublingual tablets.
6What is the primary purpose of the FDA's Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS) program?
A.To reduce drug manufacturing costs
B.To ensure the benefits of a drug outweigh its risks
C.To speed up the drug approval process
D.To establish drug pricing guidelines
Explanation: REMS are drug safety programs required by the FDA for certain medications with serious safety concerns. They help ensure the benefits of a medication outweigh its risks. REMS may include medication guides, communication plans, and Elements to Assure Safe Use (ETASU) such as prescriber certification and patient registries.
7Under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), what is the maximum amount of pseudoephedrine a customer can purchase in a 30-day period?
A.3.6 grams
B.7.5 grams
C.9 grams
D.15 grams
Explanation: The CMEA limits pseudoephedrine purchases to 3.6 grams per day and 9 grams per 30-day period for retail transactions. Mail-order purchases are limited to 7.5 grams per 30-day period. Retailers must keep a logbook of all pseudoephedrine sales and products must be kept behind the counter.
8A pharmacist receives a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance dated 45 days ago. Under federal law, this prescription:
A.Must be filled within 30 days
B.May be filled as there is no federal time limit
C.Cannot be filled because it has expired
D.May only be partially filled
Explanation: Federal law does not impose a specific time limit on filling Schedule II prescriptions. However, many states, including Tennessee, may impose their own time limits. The pharmacist must use professional judgment to determine whether the prescription is still valid based on the patient's needs and state law requirements.
9Under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), which of the following is NOT considered protected health information (PHI)?
A.A patient's prescription history
B.A patient's date of birth
C.De-identified aggregate prescription data
D.A patient's home address
Explanation: De-identified data is not considered PHI under HIPAA. PHI includes individually identifiable health information such as names, dates, addresses, Social Security numbers, and medical records. Data that has been properly de-identified according to HIPAA standards (Safe Harbor or Expert Determination method) is not subject to HIPAA restrictions.
10Under the Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA), what must be included with each transaction of a prescription drug between trading partners?
A.Only the drug name and NDC number
B.Transaction information, transaction history, and transaction statement
C.DEA Form 222 and invoice
D.Certificate of analysis and lot number only
Explanation: The DSCSA requires three types of documentation for each prescription drug transaction: transaction information (drug details, date, entities involved), transaction history (previous ownership chain), and transaction statement (attestation that the trading partner meets DSCSA requirements). This supports drug supply chain integrity and helps prevent counterfeit drugs.

About the TN MPJE Exam

The Tennessee MPJE tests knowledge of federal pharmacy law and Tennessee-specific pharmacy regulations under TCA Title 63 Chapter 10. Required alongside the NAPLEX for pharmacist licensure in Tennessee.

Exam sponsor: NABP / TN Board of Pharmacy. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Questions

120 questions

Time Limit

2.5 hours

Passing Score

Pass/Fail (no scaled score reported)

Exam / Certification Fees

$270 total ($100 + $170)

Exam sponsor website

Reported exam pass rate: Not publicly reported. Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

22%

Licensure & Personnel

Pharmacist qualifications, intern/technician requirements, license renewal, disciplinary actions

33%

Pharmacist Practice

Prescription requirements, counseling, opioid prescribing limits, collaborative practice agreements

24%

Dispensing Requirements

Generic substitution, prescription transfers, DUR, labeling, CSMD checking

21%

Pharmacy Operations

Controlled substance records, compounding standards, pharmacy permits, automated dispensing

Preparing for the TN MPJE Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Pass/Fail (no scaled score reported)
  • Exam length: 120 questions
  • Time limit: 2.5 hours
  • Exam / certification fees: $270 total ($100 + $170) Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 331 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

TN MPJE: Suggested Study Strategy

1Study TCA Title 63 Chapter 10 and Board rules (Chapter 1140)
2Master CSMD requirements — mandatory checks for opioids and benzodiazepines and dispenser daily reporting
3Know Tennessee's tiered opioid supply limits under Tennessee Together legislation
4Review Tennessee's NPLEx electronic pseudoephedrine tracking system and current purchase limits
5Understand Tennessee collaborative practice agreements and pharmacist clinical scope

Frequently Asked Questions

How is the Tennessee MPJE scored?

NABP reports Tennessee MPJE results as Pass or Fail only — candidates do not receive a scaled score. The exam has 120 computer-adaptive questions (100 scored, 20 unscored pretest) over 2.5 hours at Pearson VUE, and at least 107 questions must be completed for a result to be reported.

What Tennessee laws are tested?

TCA Title 63 Chapter 10, Board rules (Chapter 1140), the CSMD under TCA Title 53 Chapter 10, collaborative practice, Tennessee Together opioid prescribing limits, and TN-specific dispensing regulations.

Does Tennessee require CSMD checks?

Yes. Tennessee requires prescribers and dispensers to check the Controlled Substance Monitoring Database (CSMD) prior to prescribing or dispensing opioids or benzodiazepines for more than a 3-day supply, and every 6 months during continued treatment.

What is Tennessee's opioid supply limit?

Under Tennessee Together (T.C.A. § 63-1-164), acute pain opioid treatment defaults to a 3-day supply and 180 total MME with no ICD-10 code required. Exceeding that triggers a personal evaluation, documented non-opioid consideration, written informed consent, and the ICD-10 code on the prescription, and then caps the course at 10 days / 500 MME, or at 30 days / 1,200 MME for a more-than-minimally-invasive procedure or documented medical necessity. The old 20-day / 850 MME surgical tier was repealed in 2019.