Utah CNA Exam Flashcards

Q: Who administers the Utah CNA exam?

The Utah CNA competency exam is administered by TMU (TestMaster Universe), operated with D&S Diversified Technologies (Headmaster), on behalf of the Utah Nursing Assistant Registry (UNAR) under the Utah Department of Commerce, Division of Occupational and Professional Licensing (DOPL). Utah CNA testing does not go through Pearson VUE.

Q: What is the passing score for the Utah CNA exam?

The written knowledge exam requires 75% (57 of 75 questions correct) within a 2-hour limit. The skills exam requires scoring at least 80% on each of 5 randomly assigned skills, chosen from a bank of 20, with 100% completion of each skill's critical safety steps, within 45 minutes.

Q: What are Utah's CNA training requirements?

Candidates must complete a UNAR-approved training program totaling 100 hours, including at least 24 hours of supervised clinical training, before testing — more than the federal OBRA minimum of 75 hours.

Q: What happens if I fail part of the Utah CNA exam?

There is no mandatory waiting period before rescheduling a failed written or skills exam — you can retest as soon as you pay the retest fee through your TMU account. You get up to 3 attempts at each portion within 1 year of finishing training. After 3 failed attempts, you must complete a new UNAR-approved training program before testing again.

Q: How do I renew my Utah CNA certification?

Certification must be renewed every 2 years by documenting at least 200 hours of paid nursing-related work performed under a licensed nurse's supervision during the prior 24 months, submitted through UNAR.

Q: What is Utah's 120-day rule for new nurse aides?

Under Utah Admin Code R432-45, someone who has completed an approved CNA training program may work as a nurse aide for up to 120 days while awaiting UNAR competency testing or results, before certification is required to continue working.

Question 1

What personal information and care activities does a resident's right to privacy cover?

Accepted Answer

Privacy covers both personal care (bathing, dressing, toileting) and medical records. Always close doors/curtains during care and never discuss a resident's condition where others can overhear.

Question 2

As a CNA, what must you do if you suspect a resident is being abused, neglected, or exploited?

Accepted Answer

Report it immediately to your supervisor and Adult Protective Services (APS) — CNAs are mandated reporters. In Utah, failing to report suspected abuse is a Class B misdemeanor.

Question 3

Distinguish abuse, neglect, and exploitation.

Accepted Answer

Abuse is intentional harm (physical, verbal, sexual, or psychological). Neglect is failure to provide needed care. Exploitation is misuse of a resident's money, property, or resources for someone else's gain.

Question 4

What does HIPAA require a CNA to do?

Accepted Answer

HIPAA protects a resident's private health information. Share details only with staff who need them for care, never discuss residents outside work, and keep charts and screens out of public view.

Question 5

Give an example of a task outside a CNA's scope of practice.

Accepted Answer

CNAs cannot give medications, perform sterile procedures, insert or remove tubes, or assess/diagnose a condition. If you notice a change, report it to the nurse rather than acting outside your training.

Question 6

A resident refuses their bath. What should you do?

Accepted Answer

Residents have the right to refuse any care. Don't force it — explain the benefit, offer to return later, and document and report the refusal to the nurse.

Question 7

When can a resident be physically restrained?

Accepted Answer

Only per an active care plan or a written physician's order, or in a genuine emergency to prevent immediate harm. Unnecessary restraint violates the resident's right to freedom from restraints — try alternatives first.

Question 8

What is the difference between reporting and recording?

Accepted Answer

Reporting is telling the nurse verbally about a change or concern, done immediately. Recording is writing it in the medical record. Both are required — one does not replace the other.

Question 9

What is Utah's 120-day rule for new nurse aides?

Accepted Answer

Under Utah Admin Code R432-45, a candidate who completes an approved training program may work as a nurse aide for up to 120 days while awaiting UNAR competency testing or results, before certification is required.

Question 10

What is the normal oral temperature range for an adult?

Accepted Answer

97.6-99.6°F. Report a temperature above 100.4°F (possible fever) or one notably below range to the nurse.

Question 11

Where do you take a radial pulse, and when do you use an apical pulse instead?

Accepted Answer

The radial pulse is taken at the thumb side of the wrist and used for routine checks. The apical pulse is taken at the left side of the chest (heart apex) with a stethoscope for a full 60 seconds when the pulse is irregular, weak, or on an infant.

Question 12

What is the normal adult respiration rate, and how should you count it accurately?

Accepted Answer

12-20 breaths per minute. Count it immediately after taking the pulse while your fingers stay on the wrist, so the resident doesn't consciously alter their breathing pattern.

Question 13

What is considered a normal adult blood pressure, and what do the two numbers mean?

Accepted Answer

Below 120/80 mmHg. The top (systolic) number is the pressure when the heart contracts; the bottom (diastolic) number is the pressure when the heart rests between beats.

Question 14

What is the normal pulse oximetry (SpO2) range, and when should you report it?

Accepted Answer

95-100% oxygen saturation is normal. Report any reading below 95% to the nurse promptly — it can signal hypoxia.

Question 15

If you recheck a resident's vital signs, how much can your reading differ from a prior reading before you should recheck or report it?

Accepted Answer

A typical tolerance is blood pressure within ±10 mmHg, pulse within ±4 beats per minute, and respirations within ±2 breaths per minute. A difference beyond these ranges should be rechecked and reported to the nurse.

Question 16

When measuring a resident's urine output for I&O tracking, how close must your measurement be to be considered accurate?

Accepted Answer

Within about ±25 mL of the actual amount. Accurate I&O tracking helps the care team monitor kidney function and fluid balance, so always read the graduated container at eye level.

Question 17

Compare Fowler's, semi-Fowler's, supine, prone, lateral, and dangle positions.

Accepted Answer

Fowler's = head raised 45-60°; semi-Fowler's = head raised 30-45°; supine = flat on the back; prone = flat on the stomach; lateral = lying on one side; dangle = sitting with legs hanging over the bedside, used before standing or transferring.

Question 18

What physical changes might signal a resident is approaching end of life, and what is the CNA's role?

Accepted Answer

Watch for mottled or cool skin, irregular or Cheyne-Stokes breathing, decreased appetite, and reduced responsiveness. The CNA's role is comfort care and reporting changes — not administering medication or making care decisions.

Question 19

Rank the five levels of ADL assistance from most to least independent.

Accepted Answer

Independent (no help) → supervision only (cueing/standby) → limited assistance (some physical help) → extensive assistance (help on both sides) → total dependence (cannot participate at all).

Question 20

When dressing versus undressing a resident with a weak or affected side, which side goes first?

Accepted Answer

Dress the affected (weak) side first; undress the unaffected (strong) side first. This 'affected first on, unaffected first off' rule reduces strain on the weaker limb.

Question 21

What direction should perineal care always be performed, and why?

Accepted Answer

Always front to back. This prevents moving bacteria from the rectal area toward the urethra, reducing the risk of urinary tract infection.

Question 22

What is the correct order for washing a resident during bathing?

Accepted Answer

Clean to dirty: start with the eyes (inner to outer corner, no soap, a clean section of cloth per eye), then the face, arms, chest/torso, legs, and the perineal area last.

Question 23

How should dentures be stored and handled?

Accepted Answer

Store dentures in a labeled denture cup with water or denture solution — never wrapped in a tissue or napkin, which risks accidental disposal. Handle them over a basin lined with a towel to prevent breakage if dropped.

Question 24

Where should the call light be placed before you leave a resident's room?

Accepted Answer

Always within the resident's reach, every time — this is a fall-prevention and safety fundamental, not just a courtesy.

Question 25

What is the correct bed-height and side-rail practice for personal care?

Accepted Answer

Raise the bed to a comfortable working height for care, then return it to its lowest, locked position before leaving. Side rails are used only per the individual care plan — they are not a default restraint.

Question 26

How should a CNA respect resident choice and cultural background during personal care?

Accepted Answer

Let the resident choose their own clothing and daily preferences, and respect cultural or religious practices around modesty, diet, and hygiene rather than imposing a fixed routine.

Question 27

List the six links in the chain of infection.

Accepted Answer

Pathogen (causative agent) → reservoir → portal of exit → mode of transmission → portal of entry → susceptible host. Breaking any one link stops the infection from spreading.

Question 28

What is the single most important infection-control action, and how long should it take?

Accepted Answer

Hand hygiene — washing with soap and water, or using alcohol-based sanitizer, for at least 20 seconds. It's the most effective way to prevent the spread of pathogens.

Question 29

What is the correct order to put on (don) PPE?

Accepted Answer

Gown, then mask, then goggles or face shield, then gloves — gloves go on last so they cover the gown cuffs.

Question 30

What is the correct order to take off (doff) PPE, and why does it differ from the donning order?

Accepted Answer

Gloves, then goggles or face shield, then gown, then mask — roughly the reverse of donning. Gloves come off first because they are most contaminated; the mask stays on longest to protect your airway until you've left the contaminated area.

Question 31

What is the difference between standard precautions and transmission-based precautions?

Accepted Answer

Standard precautions (hand hygiene, PPE as needed) are used with every resident regardless of diagnosis. Transmission-based precautions are added on top of standard precautions for residents with a specific suspected or confirmed infection.

Question 32

Match the precaution type to the infection: MRSA/C. diff, flu/pertussis, and TB/measles.

Accepted Answer

MRSA and C. diff → contact precautions (gown and gloves). Flu and pertussis → droplet precautions (mask within about 3-6 feet). TB and measles → airborne precautions (N95 respirator, negative-pressure room).

Question 33

What does the fire-response mnemonic RACE stand for?

Accepted Answer

Rescue (remove residents from danger), Alarm (activate the fire alarm), Confine (close doors to contain smoke/fire), Extinguish (use an extinguisher only if safe) or Evacuate.

Question 34

What does the fire-extinguisher mnemonic PASS stand for?

Accepted Answer

Pull the safety pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, Sweep side to side.

Question 35

What is proper body mechanics technique when transferring or lifting a resident?

Accepted Answer

Bend your knees, not your back, keep a wide base of support, keep the resident close to your body, and use a properly applied gait belt for any unsteady transfer.

Question 36

A resident begins to fall while you're assisting them. What should you do?

Accepted Answer

Never try to catch or stop their full weight. Widen your stance, ease them down to the floor while guiding and protecting their head, and call for help immediately.

Question 37

What is the difference between full weight bearing (FWB), partial weight bearing (PWB), and no weight bearing (NWB)?

Accepted Answer

FWB means the resident can bear all of their weight on the limb. PWB means they can bear only some weight, per therapy orders. NWB means they cannot bear any weight and need a wheelchair, crutches, or similar device.

Question 38

Differentiate delirium from dementia.

Accepted Answer

Delirium has a sudden onset and is often reversible once its medical cause, such as infection, medication, or dehydration, is treated. Dementia has a gradual, progressive onset and is not reversible.

Question 39

What is 'sundowning'?

Accepted Answer

A pattern seen in some residents with dementia where confusion, agitation, or restlessness worsens in the late afternoon and evening.

Question 40

What is validation therapy, and when is it used?

Accepted Answer

A communication approach for residents with dementia where the CNA enters and agrees with the resident's perceived reality instead of correcting or arguing with them, which reduces distress and agitation.

Question 41

What is 'redirection' as a behavioral technique?

Accepted Answer

Shifting a confused or agitated resident's attention to a different topic or activity, rather than confronting or arguing with them, to help de-escalate the situation.

Question 42

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which needs must be met first when planning resident care?

Accepted Answer

Physiological needs — food, water, air, elimination — come first, before safety needs, then love/belonging, esteem, and self-actualization.

Question 43

What changes in an older resident might signal depression, and what should a CNA do?

Accepted Answer

Watch for withdrawal, appetite or sleep changes, loss of interest in activities, or statements of hopelessness. Report these observations to the nurse — a CNA does not diagnose, but early reporting supports timely care.

Question 44

What does the integumentary system include, and why does a CNA check it regularly?

Accepted Answer

Skin, hair, and nails. CNAs check skin during care for redness, breakdown, or bruising — early signs of pressure injuries that must be reported immediately.

Question 45

What organs make up the cardiovascular system, and which vital signs reflect its function?

Accepted Answer

The heart and blood vessels. Pulse and blood pressure are the vital signs that reflect cardiovascular function.

Question 46

What organs make up the respiratory system, and what signs of distress should a CNA report?

Accepted Answer

The lungs and airway. Report labored or noisy breathing, an unusual respiration rate, or bluish skin color (cyanosis) to the nurse right away.

Question 47

What does the musculoskeletal system include, and how does it relate to CNA care?

Accepted Answer

Bones, muscles, and joints. It directly affects mobility and fall risk, and drives the need for range-of-motion exercises and safe transfer techniques.

Question 48

What does the neurological system include, and how does it connect to stroke recognition?

Accepted Answer

The brain, spinal cord, and nerves. It controls cognition and sensation — the F.A.S.T. stroke check (Face, Arm, Speech, Time) screens for sudden neurological changes that require an immediate 911 call.

Question 49

What is the difference between active range of motion (AROM) and passive range of motion (PROM)?

Accepted Answer

In AROM, the resident moves their own joints, which helps build or maintain strength. In PROM, the CNA moves the resident's joints for them, used when a resident cannot move independently, to help prevent contractures.

Question 50

Distinguish restorative care goals from rehabilitative care goals, and define 'contracture.'

Accepted Answer

Restorative care aims to maintain a resident's current level of function and slow decline; rehabilitative care aims to restore function that has been lost. A contracture is a permanent shortening or tightening of a muscle or joint from lack of movement, prevented through regular ROM exercises and repositioning.

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