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100+ Free EASA Module 13 Practice Questions

Pass your EASA Part-66 Module 13 - Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems (B2) exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: EASA Module 13 Exam

188 questions

B2 Exam Length

Regulation (EU) 2023/989

235 minutes

Time Allowed

EASA Part-66 (2023/989)

75%

Pass Mark

EASA Part-66

B2/B2L only

Candidate Categories

EASA Part-66 Appendix I

12 June 2024

2023/989 Applicable Date

Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/989

3 attempts / 90 days

Retake Limit

EASA Part-66

Module 13 is the EASA Part-66 avionics systems module taken only by category B2/B2L candidates, and it is the largest single Part-66 paper. The B2 exam has 188 three-option multiple-choice questions in 235 minutes (raised from 180/225 by Regulation (EU) 2023/989, applicable 12 June 2024) with a 75% pass mark and no essays. It covers theory of flight (aeroplane aerodynamics, high-speed flight, rotary-wing); structures (zoning, station identification, fail-safe concepts, bonding and lightning protection); autoflight (ATA 22 - AFCS, yaw damper, autothrottle, autoland CAT I/II/III); communication and navigation (ATA 23/34 - VHF/HF, VOR, ILS localizer 108.10-111.95 MHz and glideslope 329-335 MHz, DME L-band, GNSS, IRS/AHRS, weather radar, transponder/TCAS, EGPWS); electrical power (ATA 24 - 115 V 400 Hz AC, IDG/CSD, TRUs); instruments (ATA 31); integrated and on-board avionics (IMA 42, OMS 45, cabin 44, information 46); and mechanical systems at awareness level. This bank uses four options for added discrimination; the real exam uses three.

Sample EASA Module 13 Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your EASA Module 13 exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1On a swept-wing jet transport, the yaw damper system is installed primarily to suppress which dynamic instability?
A.Dutch roll
B.Phugoid oscillation
C.Spiral divergence
D.Short-period pitch oscillation
Explanation: The yaw damper senses yaw rate and commands opposing rudder to damp Dutch roll, a coupled roll-yaw oscillation to which swept-wing aircraft are lightly damped. It is a stability augmentation function, not a turn-coordination aid.
2An ILS localizer transmitter operates within which frequency band?
A.329.3 to 335.0 MHz
B.962 to 1213 MHz
C.108.10 to 111.95 MHz
D.118.00 to 136.975 MHz
Explanation: The ILS localizer operates on 40 channels in the 108.10 to 111.95 MHz VHF band, using only odd-tenths decimals so it does not conflict with VOR assignments in the same band.
3A CAT IIIB precision approach is defined by a decision height of less than 50 ft (or no DH) and a runway visual range of not less than which value?
A.550 m
B.300 m
C.200 m
D.75 m
Explanation: CAT IIIB permits a DH below 50 ft, or no DH, with an RVR of not less than 75 m. It requires a fail-operational autoland system so the landing can complete automatically after a single failure.
4In a conventional aircraft constant-frequency electrical system, AC is generated as three-phase 115 V at what frequency?
A.50 Hz
B.400 Hz
C.60 Hz
D.28 Hz
Explanation: Aircraft constant-frequency AC systems generate three-phase 115 V at 400 Hz. The higher frequency allows smaller, lighter transformers and motors, saving weight compared with 50/60 Hz ground systems.
5A transformer rectifier unit (TRU) in a typical large-aircraft electrical system performs which conversion?
A.28 V DC to 115 V AC
B.115 V AC 400 Hz to 26 V AC 400 Hz
C.115 V AC to 28 V DC
D.28 V DC to 270 V DC
Explanation: A TRU steps down and rectifies 115 V AC to nominal 28 V DC for the aircraft DC busbars and battery charging. It combines a transformer with a rectifier bridge in one unit.
6Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) determines slant range by measuring the time delay between interrogation and reply in which frequency band?
A.L-band 962 to 1213 MHz
B.VHF 108 to 118 MHz
C.UHF 329 to 335 MHz
D.HF 3 to 30 MHz
Explanation: DME operates in the L-band (962 to 1213 MHz). The airborne interrogator sends pulse pairs and measures the round-trip time to the ground transponder reply, computing slant range.
7A rate gyro used in a turn coordinator or yaw damper exhibits which fundamental gyroscopic property when subjected to an applied force?
A.Rigidity in space only
B.Nutation about the spin axis
C.Random drift proportional to spin speed
D.Precession at 90 degrees to the applied force in the direction of rotation
Explanation: Precession causes a gyro to react to an applied torque at a point 90 degrees further around the rotor in the direction of rotation. Rate gyros use restrained precession against a spring to measure angular rate.
8In the pitot-static system, a blocked pitot tube with a clear, unblocked drain hole will cause the airspeed indicator to behave how during a climb at constant power?
A.Read progressively higher, like an altimeter
B.Read progressively lower, eventually toward zero
C.Freeze at the last value
D.Read correctly throughout
Explanation: If the pitot ram inlet is blocked but the drain hole is open, trapped dynamic pressure bleeds to static and the indicated airspeed falls toward zero. (A pitot blocked with the drain also blocked makes the ASI act like an altimeter.)
9On a swept-wing aircraft, the primary high-speed aerodynamic benefit of wing sweep is that it:
A.Delays the onset of compressibility effects by reducing the chordwise Mach number
B.Increases the effective camber of the wing
C.Eliminates induced drag at cruise
D.Reduces the wing's structural weight directly
Explanation: Sweep reduces the component of airflow Mach number perpendicular to the wing leading edge, delaying the formation of shock waves (critical Mach number is raised), which permits higher cruise speeds.
10Aircraft zonal identification systems divide the airframe into major zones. Which statement correctly describes the standard major-zone numbering convention?
A.Zones are numbered by ATA chapter only
B.Zones correspond to electrical bus numbers
C.Zones are assigned alphabetically from nose to tail
D.The fuselage, wings, empennage and nacelles are each assigned hundreds-series major zone numbers
Explanation: The zonal system allocates major zones in hundreds (e.g., 100 lower fuselage, 200 upper fuselage, 300 empennage, 400 powerplants/nacelles, 500/600 wings), with sub-zones and zones nested within for location of components and access.

About the EASA Module 13 Exam

EASA Part-66 Module 13 (Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems) is the avionics-track systems module of the European aircraft maintenance licence and is sat by category B2 and B2L candidates only. It is the single largest Part-66 examination, bundling theory of flight, airframe structures and almost every aircraft system - autoflight, communication and navigation, electrical power, instruments, integrated modular avionics and mechanical systems at awareness level - into one paper. The current B2 paper has 188 multiple-choice questions in 235 minutes under Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2023/989, applicable from 12 June 2024. The pass mark is 75%.

Questions

188 scored questions

Time Limit

235 minutes (may be administered as two sittings)

Passing Score

75% (Part-66 module pass mark)

Exam Fee

Varies by NAA/Part-147 organisation (approximately EUR 50-230 per module sitting) (EASA framework - examinations sat at National Aviation Authorities or approved Part-147 maintenance training organisations)

EASA Module 13 Exam Content Outline

22%

Communication & Navigation (ATA 23/34)

VHF voice with 8.33 kHz spacing and HF skywave, ACARS and SATCOM datalink, VOR 30 Hz phase comparison, ILS localizer (108.10-111.95 MHz) and glideslope (329-335 MHz), MLS, ADF/NDB, DME L-band ranging, RNAV/RNP performance monitoring, GNSS four-satellite fix, IRS/AHRS, X-band Doppler weather radar, Mode S transponder (1030/1090 MHz), TCAS II vertical RAs, ADS-B and EGPWS/TAWS

18%

Mechanical Systems (awareness)

Air conditioning air-cycle packs and pressurisation outflow control with the 10,000 ft cabin altitude warning, continuous-loop fire detection and Class C cargo suppression, fly-by-wire flight controls and electro-hydrostatic actuators, capacitance fuel gauging and jettison, hydraulic accumulators and reservoir pressurisation, ice detection and bleed-air anti-ice, landing-gear anti-skid and downlocks, and diluter-demand and chemical oxygen systems

14%

Autoflight (ATA 22)

AFCS fundamentals and command signal processing, roll/pitch/yaw channel modes, flight director command bars, yaw damper for Dutch roll, automatic trim, autothrottle speed mode, NAV/VOR and ILS APP coupling, helicopter SAS, and automatic landing principles, CAT I/II/IIIA/IIIB categories, fail-passive versus fail-operational systems, and the radio-altitude flare

14%

Instruments (ATA 31)

Pitot-static behaviour with blockage cases and air data computers, barometric altimeter QNH/QFE/standard and radio altimeter, Mach meter, gyroscopic rigidity and precession, ring laser gyro Sagnac effect and IRS, angle-of-attack vanes and stall warning, EFIS PFD parameters, flux valve heading, synchros, EICAS/ECAM warning colours and crash-protected FDR/CVR

12%

Electrical Power (ATA 24)

Three-phase 115 V 400 Hz generation, integrated drive generator and constant speed drive, generator control unit field-current voltage regulation, AC paralleling and synchronisation, transformer rectifier units to 28 V DC, static inverters, batteries and APU/engine start reserve, ram air turbine, no-break power transfer and bus-tie logic, bonding and circuit-breaker protection

10%

Integrated & On-board Avionics (ATA 42/44/45/46/33)

Integrated modular avionics with robust ARINC 653 time/space partitioning, unidirectional ARINC 429 data buses, on-board and central maintenance systems correlating BITE fault data, cabin systems and IFE network segregation/security, information systems and Electronic Flight Bag isolation, and external/navigation lights including the red-port/green-starboard convention

10%

Theory of Flight & Structures (13.1/13.2)

Aeroplane aerodynamics and roll/pitch/yaw control surfaces, adverse yaw and its remedies, slats and flaps as high-lift devices, wing sweep and critical Mach number with shock formation, rotary-wing dissymmetry of lift; airframe zoning and fuselage-station identification, fail-safe and damage-tolerant concepts, electrical bonding, static dischargers and composite lightning strike protection mesh

How to Pass the EASA Module 13 Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 75% (Part-66 module pass mark)
  • Exam length: 188 questions
  • Time limit: 235 minutes (may be administered as two sittings)
  • Exam fee: Varies by NAA/Part-147 organisation (approximately EUR 50-230 per module sitting)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

EASA Module 13 Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorise the navigation frequency bands: VOR/localizer 108-117.95 MHz (localizer 108.10-111.95 MHz, odd tenths), glideslope 329.3-335 MHz UHF, DME and transponder L-band 962-1213 MHz, and ADF/NDB LF/MF
2Learn the autoland categories cold: CAT I (200 ft DH, 550 m RVR), CAT II (100-200 ft DH, 300 m), CAT IIIA (below 100 ft, 200 m, fail-passive), CAT IIIB (below 50 ft, 75 m, fail-operational)
3Know the electrical numbers: three-phase 115 V at 400 Hz, IDG/CSD holds frequency near 400 Hz, TRUs give 28 V DC, transponder interrogation 1030 MHz and reply 1090 MHz
4Distinguish stability augmentation from autopilot: the yaw damper damps Dutch roll, helicopter SAS gives limited-authority rate damping, and auto-trim off-loads the elevator servo
5Master gyro principles: rigidity in space for attitude/heading gyros, precession at 90 degrees for rate gyros, and the Sagnac effect for ring laser gyros in an IRS
6Drill the pitot-static blockage cases - blocked pitot with open drain reads toward zero; blocked pitot with blocked drain acts like an altimeter - and altimeter settings QNH, QFE and 1013.25 hPa standard

Frequently Asked Questions

Who sits EASA Part-66 Module 13?

Module 13 (Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures and Systems) is taken by category B2 and B2L avionics-track candidates only. Category A, B1 and B3 engineers do not sit this paper; their airframe and powerplant content is covered in Modules 11 and 12 instead.

How many questions are on the B2 Module 13 exam and how long is it?

Under Regulation (EU) 2023/989 (applicable 12 June 2024) the B2 Module 13 exam has 188 multiple-choice questions in 235 minutes - raised from 180 questions in 225 minutes. It is the single largest Part-66 examination and may be administered as two sittings.

What is the pass mark and how many attempts are allowed?

The Part-66 pass mark is 75% with no negative marking. A maximum of three consecutive attempts is allowed, after which a 90-day waiting period applies before the next attempt at that module.

Is the real exam multiple-choice, and how many options per question?

Yes. The real EASA exam uses 3-option multiple-choice questions at knowledge level 2-3, with roughly 75 seconds allowed per question. Module 13 has no essay element - essays remain only in Module 7. This practice bank uses 4 options for extra discrimination.

What systems does Module 13 cover?

It covers theory of flight and structures plus autoflight (ATA 22), communication and navigation (ATA 23/34), electrical power (ATA 24), instruments (ATA 31), integrated modular avionics (42), on-board maintenance (45), cabin (44) and information systems (46), and mechanical systems such as air conditioning, fire protection, flight controls, fuel, hydraulics, ice/rain, landing gear and oxygen at awareness level.

What changed with the 2023/989 amendment?

The amendment merged several former sub-module splits (7A/7B, 9A/9B, 11A/11B/11C, 17A/17B) and updated question counts and times. For Module 13 B2, the paper grew to 188 questions in 235 minutes. Pre-2024 courses must finish under the old standard by 12 June 2026, so new study should follow the 2023/989 syllabus.

Does this practice test apply to the UK CAA?

This bank is built to the EASA 2023/989 syllabus. The UK CAA has diverged from EASA since Brexit, so although much technical content overlaps, UK candidates should confirm the current UK CAA Part-66 Module 13 specification with their training organisation.