Oregon CNA Exam Flashcards

Q: How is the Oregon CNA competency examination structured?

It has two components. The knowledge test contains 80 multiple-choice questions and allows 90 minutes. The skill test assigns 3 or 4 tasks and allows 35 minutes. Candidates must pass both components.

Q: What score is required to pass the Oregon CNA examination?

The knowledge test requires 73% or better. On the skill test, the candidate must complete every key step and at least 80% of the non-key steps for every assigned task.

Q: What content areas appear on the Oregon CNA knowledge test?

The current 80-question plan assigns 10 questions each to Basic Nursing Skills, Infection Control, and Personal Care; 9 to Data Collection; 8 each to Client Rights and Communication; 6 each to Mental Health and Role and Responsibility; 5 to Disease Process; and 4 each to Care of the Impaired and Safety.

Q: Who administers the Oregon CNA examination?

The Oregon State Board of Nursing (OSBN) approves applicants and maintains the registry. D&S Diversified Technologies/Headmaster provides, administers, and scores the knowledge and skill tests, with scheduling handled through TMU.

Q: Is an Oregon CNA pass rate publicly available?

No current statewide candidate pass rate is published by OSBN or D&S/Headmaster. A study resource should not substitute an estimate for an official statistic.

Q: How long must a candidate wait to retake a failed Oregon CNA test component?

The current candidate handbook publishes no calendar waiting period and no general attempt limit for candidates who completed training. A failed component still requires a new OSBN retake application, payment, and release before the candidate can schedule again, so the metadata uses 0 only to mean no mandated number of waiting days.

Q: Does passing the Oregon CNA tests immediately allow a person to work as a CNA?

No. Passing the tests is only part of certification. The person must satisfy all OSBN application requirements and receive an active Oregon CNA certificate and registry listing before performing CNA duties, except for the limited supervised activities allowed to students in approved training.

Q: What changed for Oregon CNAs in 2025 and 2026?

Oregon consolidated CNA1 and CNA2 into one CNA level on July 1, 2025. For renewal beginning January 1, 2026, practice hours are no longer required; a CNA certificate is valid for two years, and 2 hours of cultural-competency continuing education must be attested every 48 months along with the other OSBN renewal requirements.

Question 1

Why does widening the base of support improve safety during a transfer?

Accepted Answer

A wider base increases stability and makes loss of balance less likely. Keep the feet apart, bend at the hips and knees, and keep the load close rather than twisting at the waist.

Question 2

What is the CNA's priority when repositioning a client in bed?

Accepted Answer

Maintain alignment, protect tubes and vulnerable skin, and use enough help or equipment to avoid dragging. Reposition according to the care plan and leave the client supported and comfortable.

Question 3

What should a CNA do if passive range-of-motion exercise causes pain or resistance?

Accepted Answer

Stop the movement; never force the joint. Support the limb, note where the problem occurred, and report the pain or resistance to the nurse.

Question 4

How should a client at risk for aspiration be positioned for eating?

Accepted Answer

Place the client as upright as the care plan permits, with the head supported and chin in a safe swallowing position. Keep the client upright after the meal for the ordered time.

Question 5

What safety check should end routine bedside care?

Accepted Answer

Leave the bed in its lowest safe position, place the call device and needed items within reach, remove hazards, and confirm the client is comfortably aligned.

Question 6

What is the safest response when a client becomes dizzy while standing?

Accepted Answer

Support the client and lower them to a secure seated or lying position; do not try to hold them upright by force. Call for help, stay with the client, and report the episode.

Question 7

How can a CNA help a client with expressive aphasia communicate?

Accepted Answer

Allow extra response time, ask one simple question at a time, offer yes/no or picture choices when useful, and do not pretend to understand an unclear response.

Question 8

How should a CNA approach a client who has limited vision?

Accepted Answer

Identify yourself before touching, explain the surroundings and each action, describe where items are using consistent clock-face or directional cues, and avoid moving possessions without telling the client.

Question 9

What is restorative care intended to preserve?

Accepted Answer

It preserves or improves the client's highest practicable level of function and independence. Let the client do every safe part of the task rather than taking over for speed.

Question 10

What must a CNA do when a competent client refuses care?

Accepted Answer

Respect the refusal, ask calmly about concerns, explain the immediate purpose without coercion, keep the client safe, and report and document the refusal according to policy.

Question 11

How does a CNA protect dignity during personal care?

Accepted Answer

Knock, identify yourself, explain the care, close doors or curtains, uncover only the area being washed or treated, and include the client in choices whenever possible.

Question 12

What does a client's right to participate in care mean for the CNA?

Accepted Answer

Offer permitted choices, honor routines and preferences within the care plan, explain before acting, and relay requests or concerns to the nurse rather than making decisions for the client.

Question 13

What is the CNA's duty after witnessing suspected abuse or neglect?

Accepted Answer

Protect the client from immediate danger and report the facts at once through required channels. Do not investigate, confront the suspected person, promise secrecy, or delay for proof.

Question 14

When may a CNA share a client's health information?

Accepted Answer

Only for an authorized care or legal purpose and only with people who need the information. Never discuss clients in public places, on social media, or with curious friends or relatives.

Question 15

What makes a question open-ended?

Accepted Answer

It invites more than a yes/no response, such as “What is making you uncomfortable?” Open-ended questions help clients describe needs in their own words.

Question 16

What belongs in an objective report to the nurse?

Accepted Answer

Include what you directly observed or measured, the time, the client's exact relevant words, actions already taken, and the response. Avoid diagnoses, blame, or unsupported conclusions.

Question 17

Why should a CNA observe nonverbal communication?

Accepted Answer

Facial expression, posture, movement, tone, and withdrawal may reveal pain, fear, confusion, or an unmet need even when spoken words do not.

Question 18

What should a CNA do when language differences prevent accurate communication?

Accepted Answer

Use the facility's qualified interpreter process and approved communication aids. Speak to the client directly and do not rely on children or unapproved relatives to interpret clinical information.

Question 19

How should a CNA respond to an angry client?

Accepted Answer

Stay calm, keep a safe distance, listen without arguing, acknowledge the concern, offer simple choices if appropriate, and get help promptly if behavior threatens safety.

Question 20

What is the difference between a CNA observation and a nursing diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

An observation is a specific fact the CNA sees, hears, measures, or is told. Diagnosing the cause or condition requires licensed-nurse assessment and is outside the CNA role.

Question 21

What should a CNA do with a vital-sign result that is unusual for the client?

Accepted Answer

Check that the measurement technique and equipment were correct, repeat it if safe and permitted, and promptly report the value together with symptoms and the client's usual pattern.

Question 22

How should intake and output be recorded?

Accepted Answer

Measure and record the actual amount in milliliters at the required time, including relevant liquid foods and drainage specified by policy. Do not estimate when a calibrated container is available.

Question 23

Why are a client's own words important when reporting pain?

Accepted Answer

Pain is subjective. Record and report the client's stated location, rating, quality, timing, and aggravating or relieving factors without deciding whether the pain is believable.

Question 24

How can a CNA make serial weights comparable?

Accepted Answer

Use the same scale, similar clothing, the same time of day, and the same conditions whenever possible. Report unexpected change because it may reflect fluid or nutrition problems.

Question 25

What makes CNA documentation legally reliable?

Accepted Answer

Chart promptly, accurately, and objectively after care; use approved abbreviations; never pre-chart or alter facts; and correct errors only by the facility's approved method.

Question 26

Which sudden findings suggest a possible stroke?

Accepted Answer

Facial droop, one-sided arm weakness, speech difficulty, sudden confusion, vision change, severe headache, or loss of balance are urgent. Note when symptoms began and summon emergency help immediately.

Question 27

What signs may indicate hypoglycemia in a client with diabetes?

Accepted Answer

Sweating, shakiness, hunger, weakness, irritability, confusion, or decreased responsiveness may occur. Stay with the client, report immediately, and follow the nurse-directed care plan rather than improvising treatment.

Question 28

Which respiratory changes require prompt reporting?

Accepted Answer

New shortness of breath, rapid or labored breathing, bluish or gray color, chest pain, confusion, falling oxygen reading, or inability to speak normally can signal deterioration and require immediate help.

Question 29

When is hand hygiene required even if gloves are worn?

Accepted Answer

Clean hands before client contact or a clean task, after body-fluid risk or client contact, after touching the surroundings, and immediately after glove removal. Gloves do not replace hand hygiene.

Question 30

What are Standard Precautions?

Accepted Answer

They are infection-prevention practices used for every client based on the expected exposure, including hand hygiene, appropriate PPE, respiratory hygiene, injection and sharps safety, and safe handling of contaminated items.

Question 31

What principle guides removal of contaminated PPE?

Accepted Answer

Avoid touching contaminated surfaces to clothing, skin, face, or the environment. Remove the most contaminated items carefully, discard or contain them correctly, and perform hand hygiene at the required points.

Question 32

Why is care generally performed from cleaner areas toward dirtier areas?

Accepted Answer

Moving clean-to-dirty reduces transfer of microorganisms into cleaner body sites. Use a fresh area of the cloth or new supplies when returning to a cleaner area.

Question 33

How should soiled linen be handled?

Accepted Answer

Hold it away from the uniform, do not shake it, roll the contaminated area inward, and place it directly in the designated container without setting it on the floor or furniture.

Question 34

What should a CNA do after a needlestick or body-fluid exposure?

Accepted Answer

Immediately wash or flush the exposed area as directed, report the incident without delay, and follow the facility's exposure evaluation process. Do not conceal the event.

Question 35

How should a CNA respond when a client with dementia insists on an incorrect belief?

Accepted Answer

Acknowledge the emotion, avoid arguing or quizzing, reassure the client, and gently redirect to a safe familiar activity. Report sudden new confusion because it may have a medical cause.

Question 36

What must a CNA do if a client talks about suicide or wanting to die?

Accepted Answer

Take every statement seriously, stay with the client, remove immediate hazards if safe, and notify the nurse at once. Do not promise confidentiality or dismiss the comment as attention-seeking.

Question 37

How can a CNA reduce anxiety during care?

Accepted Answer

Use a calm voice, explain one step at a time, allow time for questions, reduce noise and crowding, offer simple choices, and maintain a predictable routine when possible.

Question 38

Why should a sudden behavior change be treated as possible communication?

Accepted Answer

Agitation, withdrawal, or resistance may express pain, fear, hunger, toileting need, infection, medication effects, or another change. Observe triggers and report facts rather than labeling the client difficult.

Question 39

How can aspiration risk be reduced during oral care?

Accepted Answer

Position the client upright or side-lying as directed, use small amounts of fluid, keep suction available if ordered, observe swallowing, and never leave an impaired client with fluid in the mouth.

Question 40

How should bath-water temperature be checked?

Accepted Answer

Use the facility-approved thermometer or method and ask the client about comfort when they can respond. Never rely only on the CNA's hand, especially when the client has reduced sensation.

Question 41

What feeding technique supports safe swallowing?

Accepted Answer

Offer small bites at the prescribed texture, allow each swallow before the next bite, alternate food and fluid as directed, avoid rushing, and stop and report coughing, choking, pocketing, or a wet voice.

Question 42

In which direction is perineal care performed?

Accepted Answer

Clean from the urinary opening toward the anus, using a clean area of the cloth for each stroke. This helps keep fecal organisms away from the urinary tract.

Question 43

Which side is dressed first when a client has one-sided weakness?

Accepted Answer

Dress the weak or affected side first and undress the strong side first, unless the care plan says otherwise. Support joints and encourage the client to do the safe portions independently.

Question 44

Which skin finding should a CNA report rather than massage?

Accepted Answer

Report persistent redness or discoloration, warmth, swelling, tenderness, blistering, or an open area over a pressure point. Relieve pressure as directed; massaging damaged tissue can worsen injury.

Question 45

What is the CNA's role in the nursing plan of care?

Accepted Answer

The CNA performs authorized tasks and observations that implement the RN-established plan, reports results and changes, and does not independently assess, diagnose, prescribe, or revise the plan.

Question 46

What should an Oregon CNA do when assigned a task they are not authorized or competent to perform?

Accepted Answer

Do not perform it. Explain the concern to the nurse, request clarification or assistance, and accept only work that is within Oregon CNA authority, the care plan, facility policy, and personal competency.

Question 47

Which medication-related care may an Oregon CNA perform?

Accepted Answer

Only the limited non-injectable products allowed by Oregon CNA rules—such as specified bowel suppositories, barrier products, antifungal topicals, and pediculicides—and only under an RN plan of care or LPN focused plan. Other medication assistance is outside CNA authority.

Question 48

Why is an active Oregon certificate and registry listing essential?

Accepted Answer

Completing training or passing the competency tests alone does not authorize CNA practice. OSBN must finish the application requirements, issue an active certificate, and list the person on the registry before CNA duties begin.

Question 49

What should a CNA do immediately after a client begins to fall?

Accepted Answer

Guide the client to the floor while protecting the head, call for help, stay with the client, and do not move them until assessed unless the location is immediately dangerous.

Question 50

What does RACE direct staff to do during a fire?

Accepted Answer

Rescue anyone in immediate danger, activate the alarm, contain the fire by closing doors, and extinguish or evacuate according to the facility plan. Personal safety and the facility procedure govern each action.

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