Free AMT MLS Exam Flashcards

Relative imprecision: CV% equals standard deviation divided by the mean, multiplied by 100. A lower CV indicates results clustered more tightly around the mean.

Random error increases unpredictable scatter and reduces precision; systematic error produces a consistent bias or trend and reduces accuracy.

Calibration establishes the relationship between instrument response and known values; quality control checks whether the calibrated system remains stable during routine testing.

Match at least two patient-specific identifiers to the order and label the specimen in the patient's presence; a room number is not an identifier.

Serum is the liquid remaining after blood clots and lacks consumed clotting factors; plasma comes from anticoagulated blood and retains clotting factors, including fibrinogen.

Unexpectedly high potassium with low calcium often suggests potassium-EDTA carryover because the additive supplies potassium and chelates calcium.

Red blood cells contain much more potassium than plasma, so in-vitro cell rupture releases intracellular potassium into the specimen.

It reduces carryover of tube additives into later specimens, which could alter results or interfere with the intended assay.

Treat blood and other potentially infectious material as capable of transmitting infection, then apply appropriate hand hygiene, barriers, and sharps controls.

It compares a patient's current result with prior results to flag a change that may reflect true clinical deterioration, specimen error, or misidentification.

Within an assay's linear range, absorbance is directly proportional to the concentration of the light-absorbing analyte when path length and wavelength are controlled.

Creatinine concentration reflects renal clearance, so equations combine it with patient variables to estimate filtration; the estimate has limitations when creatinine production is atypical.

Hepatocellular injury usually causes a greater relative rise in AST and ALT; cholestasis produces a greater relative rise in alkaline phosphatase, often supported by GGT.

Roughly the preceding two to three months, with more influence from recent weeks because circulating red cells have different ages.

Cardiac troponin is more specific to myocardial injury than older enzyme markers; interpretation depends on the value, serial change, assay cutoff, and clinical context.

Sodium minus the sum of chloride and bicarbonate. It estimates unmeasured ions and helps classify metabolic acidosis.

A primary decrease in bicarbonate lowers pH; appropriate respiratory compensation lowers PCO2 through increased ventilation.

A concentrated, relatively uniform immunoglobulin population produced by a single clone; immunofixation is used to characterize the protein.

High TSH with low free T4 because the thyroid fails and the pituitary increases stimulation in response.

MCV classifies red cells as microcytic, normocytic, or macrocytic by their average volume; it narrows the differential but does not establish the cause alone.

An active marrow response to red-cell loss or destruction, provided the count is interpreted relative to the degree of anemia and red-cell maturation time.

A low ferritin strongly supports depleted iron stores; a normal or high value does not exclude deficiency when inflammation elevates ferritin.

Macro-ovalocytes with hypersegmented neutrophils, reflecting impaired DNA synthesis such as vitamin B12 or folate deficiency.

It supports myeloid differentiation and therefore an acute myeloid leukemia lineage rather than acute lymphoblastic leukemia.

The BCR::ABL1 fusion, usually created by the t(9;22) Philadelphia chromosome, produces constitutive tyrosine-kinase activity.

EDTA-dependent pseudothrombocytopenia. The count should be investigated and, when appropriate, repeated with an alternate anticoagulant under laboratory procedure.

It detects the presence of hemoglobin S but does not quantify or separate hemoglobin fractions; a hemoglobin separation method is needed for classification.

A prolonged PT with a normal aPTT because factor VII belongs to the extrinsic pathway assessed by PT.

Correction after mixing patient plasma with normal plasma suggests a factor deficiency; failure to correct suggests an inhibitor, though time-dependent inhibitors require incubated interpretation.

IgM usually appears first and is efficient at complement activation; class-switched IgG predominates later and provides longer-lived, higher-affinity systemic immunity.

HIV-1/2 antibodies plus HIV-1 p24 antigen, shortening the detection window compared with antibody-only screening; a reactive result requires the recommended supplemental algorithm.

Forward typing detects A or B antigens on patient red cells; reverse typing detects expected anti-A or anti-B in patient plasma and helps reveal discrepancies.

The DAT detects immunoglobulin or complement already coating red cells in vivo; the IAT detects serum antibodies that can bind reagent red cells in vitro.

The patient's plasma reacts with the patient-cell sample. An autoantibody is common, but recently transfused donor cells may carry an alloantigen; correlate with the DAT, transfusion history, and panel pattern.

To test recipient plasma against donor red cells for incompatibility that could cause an adverse transfusion reaction.

To prevent an eligible RhD-negative person from becoming actively immunized to RhD after exposure to RhD-positive red cells; it does not remove established anti-D.

At 1-6 degrees C, with continuous temperature control under blood-bank storage requirements.

At 20-24 degrees C with continuous gentle agitation, using the applicable dating and bacterial-risk controls for the product.

Stop the transfusion, keep IV access with compatible saline, notify the clinical team and transfusion service, and begin the required patient and product investigation.

Irradiation inactivates donor T lymphocytes to prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease; leukoreduction is not a substitute for this purpose.

Catalase-positive staphylococci and related genera produce bubbles with hydrogen peroxide, while streptococci and enterococci are catalase negative.

It suppresses most gram-positive organisms and differentiates lactose fermenters, which form pink colonies, from nonfermenters.

It comes from a normally sterile or deep site, is protected from oxygen, and is transported promptly; superficial swabs are usually poor specimens.

To amplify a specific nucleic-acid target so a small amount can be detected; RNA targets require a reverse-transcription step before amplification.

Potassium hydroxide clears keratin and cellular debris, making fungal elements easier to visualize microscopically.

The lowest tested concentration of an antimicrobial that prevents visible growth of the organism under standardized conditions.

The concentration of dissolved substances relative to water; it helps assess renal concentrating ability but can be affected by large molecules such as glucose or radiographic contrast.

They localize bleeding to the nephron and strongly suggest glomerular injury, especially when accompanied by dysmorphic red cells and proteinuria.

Inflammation within the kidney, classically pyelonephritis or interstitial nephritis, rather than isolated lower urinary-tract inflammation.

Conjugated bilirubin is water soluble and can be filtered into urine; unconjugated bilirubin is albumin bound and is not normally filtered.