All Practice Exams

Free Practice Questions for OMSB Residency Selection (OMRSE)

Exam-style questions and explanations by OpenExamPrep.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card
100+ Questions
100% Free

Loading practice questions...

Exam Review

Key Facts: OMSB Residency Selection (OMRSE) Exam

150 MCQs

Single-best-answer questions on the OMRSE

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1EdBLak3l0uL5a3m1WcpoIdyvJiCUC3xa/view

2 h 45 min

Total examination duration

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1EdBLak3l0uL5a3m1WcpoIdyvJiCUC3xa/view

60%

Passing score required

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1EdBLak3l0uL5a3m1WcpoIdyvJiCUC3xa/view

USD 130

Examination registration fee

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1EdBLak3l0uL5a3m1WcpoIdyvJiCUC3xa/view

6 domains

Blueprint areas across medicine, surgery, and primary care

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1EdBLak3l0uL5a3m1WcpoIdyvJiCUC3xa/view

The OMRSE features 150 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 45 minutes, costs USD 130, and requires a 60% passing score (OMSB booklet, May 2026). It is the required entrance examination for OMSB postgraduate medical residency training. These 100 independent practice questions cover all six blueprint areas, led by Medicine (39%), Surgery (18%), Women's Health (13%), Emergency Medicine (12%), Public/Community Health (11%), and Child Health (7%).

Sample OMSB Residency Selection (OMRSE) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the OMSB Residency Selection (OMRSE) exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 62-year-old man with hypertension and dyslipidemia presents with a 2-hour history of retrosternal chest tightness occurring at rest. Vital signs show blood pressure 138/84 mmHg, heart rate 78 bpm, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. The 12-lead ECG demonstrates 1.5 mm horizontal ST-segment depression in leads V4 to V6 with T-wave inversion. High-sensitivity cardiac troponin T is elevated at 145 ng/L (reference < 14 ng/L). Along with loading doses of aspirin and heparin, which oral P2Y12 inhibitor is most appropriate as part of dual antiplatelet therapy in this patient who has no history of stroke or transient ischemic attack?
A.Dipyridamole
B.Cilostazol
C.Ticagrelor
D.Clopidogrel at maintenance dose without a loading dose
Explanation: In non-ST-segment elevation acute coronary syndromes (NSTE-ACS) with elevated troponin, current clinical guidelines recommend dual antiplatelet therapy combining aspirin with a potent P2Y12 inhibitor such as ticagrelor (180 mg loading dose followed by 90 mg twice daily) or prasugrel (if coronary anatomy is known and PCI planned), in preference to clopidogrel, because potent P2Y12 inhibition significantly reduces ischemic events and cardiovascular mortality.
2A 68-year-old woman with ischemic cardiomyopathy has persistent exertional breathlessness corresponding to NYHA functional class II. Transthoracic echocardiography reveals a left ventricular ejection fraction of 30%. Her current medical regimen consists of enalapril 10 mg twice daily, carvedilol 25 mg twice daily, and furosemide 40 mg once daily. Her blood pressure is 122/74 mmHg, heart rate is 68 bpm, eGFR is 52 mL/min/1.73m2, and serum potassium is 4.3 mmol/L. Which pharmacological agent should be initiated next to reduce heart failure hospitalization and cardiovascular mortality?
A.Dapagliflozin
B.Digoxin
C.Amlodipine
D.Isosorbide mononitrate monotherapy
Explanation: Guidelines for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) recommend four foundational guideline-directed medical therapies (GDMT): an ARNI/ACEi/ARB, an evidence-based beta-blocker, a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA), and a sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor such as dapagliflozin or empagliflozin. SGLT2 inhibitors significantly reduce all-cause mortality and heart failure hospitalizations regardless of whether the patient has diabetes mellitus.
3A 72-year-old woman with well-controlled primary hypertension is found to have an irregularly irregular pulse during a routine clinic visit. An ECG confirms atrial fibrillation with a ventricular response rate of 88 bpm. She has no history of stroke, transient ischemic attack, diabetes mellitus, heart failure, or peripheral vascular disease. Transthoracic echocardiography shows normal left ventricular systolic function with mild left atrial enlargement. What is the most appropriate long-term stroke prevention strategy for this patient?
A.Aspirin 81 mg once daily
B.Direct oral anticoagulant therapy (e.g., apixaban or rivaroxaban)
C.Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel
D.No antithrombotic therapy because her heart rate is well controlled
Explanation: According to the CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system, this patient scores 3 points: age 65–74 years (1 point), female sex (1 point), and hypertension (1 point). In non-valvular atrial fibrillation, clinical guidelines strongly recommend oral anticoagulation for men with a score >= 2 and women with a score >= 3, with direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) preferred over warfarin due to a superior safety profile and lower risk of intracranial hemorrhage.
4A 48-year-old man who underwent mechanical aortic valve replacement three years ago presents with a 3-week history of low-grade fever, night sweats, fatigue, and weight loss. On examination, temperature is 38.2 C, pulse is 92 bpm, and a new early diastolic murmur is heard along the left sternal border. Subungual splinter hemorrhages are visible on the right hand. Blood cultures drawn on admission are pending. Which diagnostic investigation has the highest sensitivity for detecting prosthetic valve endocarditis and peri-annular abscess?
A.Transthoracic echocardiography
B.Chest radiography
C.Coronary computed tomography angiography
D.Transesophageal echocardiography
Explanation: Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) has a sensitivity exceeding 90% for detecting prosthetic valve endocarditis, vegetations, ring abscesses, and valve dehiscence, compared to approximately 40-70% for transthoracic echocardiography (TTE), which is limited by acoustic shadowing from prosthetic valve metal struts.
5A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and a prior myocardial infarction 2 years ago attends the outpatient medical clinic. His current medications are metformin 1000 mg twice daily, atorvastatin 40 mg, and ramipril 10 mg. His BMI is 31 kg/m2, blood pressure is 128/78 mmHg, and laboratory tests show HbA1c 8.4% (target < 7.0%) and eGFR 78 mL/min/1.73m2. Which medication is the most appropriate next addition to achieve glycemic control while conferring proven cardiovascular risk reduction?
A.Gliclazide
B.Pioglitazone
C.Dulaglutide
D.Acarbose
Explanation: In patients with type 2 diabetes and established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) who require intensification of glycemic therapy beyond metformin, clinical guidelines recommend adding a GLP-1 receptor agonist with proven cardiovascular benefit (such as dulaglutide, liraglutide, or semaglutide) or an SGLT2 inhibitor, independent of baseline HbA1c.
6A 42-year-old woman presents to primary care complaining of progressive generalized fatigue, 4 kg weight gain over 3 months, cold intolerance, and dry coarse skin. Physical examination reveals a non-tender, diffusely enlarged thyroid gland, delayed deep tendon reflexes, and a pulse of 56 bpm. Laboratory evaluation reveals serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) of 16.4 mIU/L (reference 0.4–4.0 mIU/L) and free thyroxine (free T4) of 7.2 pmol/L (reference 10–22 pmol/L). What is the most appropriate initial management?
A.Oral levothyroxine once daily on an empty stomach
B.Oral liothyronine (T3) monotherapy taken twice daily
C.Propylthiouracil 100 mg three times daily
D.Repeat TSH and free T4 in 6 months without therapy
Explanation: The patient has overt primary hypothyroidism characterized by elevated TSH and low free T4. The treatment of choice is oral levothyroxine (T4) monotherapy, administered once daily on an empty stomach with plain water at least 30 to 60 minutes before breakfast or at bedtime to optimize gastrointestinal absorption.
7A 46-year-old man presents with persistent hypertension resistant to three antihypertensive agents (amlodipine 10 mg, valsartan 160 mg, and hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily). Routine blood testing reveals a serum potassium level of 2.9 mmol/L (reference 3.5–5.0 mmol/L) without diuretic abuse. Which initial screening test is recommended to evaluate for primary aldosteronism?
A.24-hour urinary free cortisol excretion
B.Plasma free metanephrines
C.Renal artery Doppler ultrasound
D.Plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR)
Explanation: The recommended initial screening test for primary aldosteronism (Conn syndrome) in patients with resistant hypertension and unprovoked or diuretic-induced hypokalemia is the morning plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR). An elevated ratio prompts confirmatory diagnostic suppression testing (e.g., oral sodium loading or saline infusion test).
8A 38-year-old woman presents with persistent anorexia, progressive weakness, dizziness upon standing, and hyperpigmentation of the palmar creases and buccal mucosa. Blood pressure is 94/60 mmHg supine and drops to 78/50 mmHg standing. Serum sodium is 129 mmol/L and serum potassium is 5.4 mmol/L. Which diagnostic investigation is the gold standard for establishing the diagnosis of primary adrenal insufficiency?
A.Insulin tolerance test
B.Short synacthen stimulation test
C.Overnight 1 mg dexamethasone suppression test
D.Morning serum aldosterone concentration alone
Explanation: The standard diagnostic test for primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease) is the short corticotropin (Synacthen/cosyntropin 250 mcg) stimulation test. A peak serum cortisol at 30 or 60 minutes below the assay-specific cut-off (classically about 500 nmol/L or 18 mcg/dL; lower with newer specific immunoassays) confirms adrenal insufficiency, and a high paired ACTH points to a primary adrenal cause.
9A 70-year-old man who takes ramipril and diclofenac for degenerative osteoarthritis develops acute gastroenteritis with 3 days of severe watery diarrhea and vomiting. On presentation, mucous membranes are dry, skin turgor is poor, blood pressure is 92/58 mmHg, and heart rate is 104 bpm. Serum creatinine has increased from a baseline of 85 umol/L to 240 umol/L. Urinalysis shows no proteinuria, hematuria, or casts, and the fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) is calculated at 0.4%. What is the primary underlying mechanism of this acute kidney injury?
A.Hemodynamically mediated pre-renal hypoperfusion
B.Acute tubular necrosis from nephrotoxin exposure
C.Acute interstitial nephritis
D.Post-renal obstructive uropathy
Explanation: A FENa of less than 1% together with concentrated urine and a benign urine sediment in a volume-depleted patient indicates intact tubular reabsorptive capacity responding to renal hypoperfusion (pre-renal azotemia). Volume depletion exacerbated by ACE inhibitors (efferent arteriolar vasodilation) and NSAIDs (afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction) acutely decreases glomerular capillary filtration pressure.
10A 34-year-old man presents with generalized bilateral lower extremity edema, facial puffiness, and foamy urine developing over 4 weeks. Examination shows 3+ pitting edema to the mid-thighs and periorbital swelling. A 24-hour urine collection reveals 5.6 g of protein. Serum albumin is 21 g/L and total cholesterol is 8.6 mmol/L. Renal function is preserved with eGFR 98 mL/min/1.73m2. Serologies for ANA, hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV are negative. Circulating anti-phospholipase A2 receptor (anti-PLA2R) autoantibodies are strongly positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Minimal change disease
B.Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
C.Primary membranous nephropathy
D.Diabetic nephropathy
Explanation: Primary membranous nephropathy is the most common cause of primary nephrotic syndrome in adults and is characterized by subepithelial immune deposits. Circulating autoantibodies against the M-type phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) are present in approximately 70-80% of primary cases and have high specificity, often obviating the need for diagnostic renal biopsy when clinical criteria are met.

About the OMSB Residency Selection (OMRSE) Exam

The Oman Medical Residency Selection Examination (OMRSE) is the mandatory prerequisite entrance assessment administered by OMSB for medical graduates seeking admission into postgraduate residency training programs in Oman. Delivered as a 150-question computer-based MCQ examination in English at the OMSB National Test Center in Muscat and at Pearson VUE test centres worldwide, it tests clinical problem-solving across six major healthcare domains. This bank provides independent OpenExamPrep practice questions mapped to the six blueprint domains; it is not an official OMSB resource.

Exam sponsor: Oman Medical Specialty Board (OMSB). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

150 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 45 minutes across 6 domains: Medicine 39%; Surgery 18%; Women's Health 13%; Emergency Medicine 12%; Public/Community Health 11%; and Child Health 7% (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).

Time Limit

2 hours 45 minutes

Passing Score

60%

Exam / Certification Fees

USD 130

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

39%

Medicine

Cardiovascular disorders, respiratory illness, diabetes and endocrine conditions, gastroenterology, nephrology, neurology, communicable diseases, hematology, dermatology, mental health, and patient counselling.

18%

Surgery

General surgery and acute surgical abdomen, perioperative care, ear, nose, and throat (ENT) pathology, ophthalmology, musculoskeletal conditions, rheumatology, and urology.

13%

Women's Health

Antenatal care (ANC), postnatal care (PNC), family planning and birth spacing, common gynecological disorders, and initial infertility evaluation.

12%

Emergency Medicine

Advanced resuscitation, trauma triage and management, acute toxicology, anaphylaxis, shock, and life-threatening medical emergencies.

11%

Public/Community Health

Preventive screening protocols, elderly and chronic care, primary healthcare consultation, disease surveillance, and healthcare infection control.

7%

Child Health

Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI) schedules, well-child developmental assessments, common pediatric illnesses, nutrition, and growth monitoring.

Preparing for the OMSB Residency Selection (OMRSE) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 60%
  • Assessment: 150 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 45 minutes across 6 domains: Medicine 39%; Surgery 18%; Women's Health 13%; Emergency Medicine 12%; Public/Community Health 11%; and Child Health 7% (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).
  • Time limit: 2 hours 45 minutes
  • Exam / certification fees: USD 130 Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

OMSB Residency Selection (OMRSE): Suggested Study Strategy

1Prioritize Medicine (39%) and Surgery (18%): these two domains constitute over half of the examination, covering high-yield presentations in cardiology, endocrinology, gastroenterology, acute abdomen, and perioperative care.
2Review maternal and child health guidelines: Women's Health (13%) and Child Health (7%) emphasize antenatal care, birth spacing, Oman routine childhood immunization (EPI), and growth monitoring.
3Consolidate emergency and community protocols: Emergency Medicine (12%) and Public Health (11%) frequently assess resuscitation algorithms, trauma ABCDE, disease surveillance, and preventive screening criteria.
4Study from recommended reference sources: authoritative texts suggested by OMSB include the Oxford Handbook of General Practice, Murtagh's General Practice, the Merck Manual, the British National Formulary (BNF), and Oman Ministry of Health clinical management manuals.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the official name and purpose of the OMRSE?

The official name is the Oman Medical Residency Selection Examination (OMRSE). It is OMSB's own mandatory prerequisite entrance examination for medical graduates applying for admission into postgraduate residency training programs in the Sultanate of Oman.

How many questions are on the OMRSE, and what is the time limit?

The examination consists of 150 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions delivered over 2 hours and 45 minutes (165 minutes) in a computer-based format.

What are the passing score and examination fee?

The passing score is 60%, and the examination fee is USD 130, paid at the time of scheduling via Pearson VUE. Results are emailed to candidates within 24 hours of completing the test.

Who is eligible to take the OMRSE?

Graduates of Omani government or private medical colleges and recognized international medical schools holding a bachelor's degree in medicine (MBBS, MD or equivalent) are eligible to register during OMSB's designated application window.

Where and when is the OMRSE delivered?

The examination is held during fixed delivery windows in September (such as 1, 2, 3, 8, 9, 10, 15, and 16 September 2026) following registration in July and August. Testing takes place at the OMSB National Test Center in Muscat and at Pearson VUE test centres internationally.

Is this practice question bank affiliated with OMSB?

No. This practice question bank is an independent educational resource produced by OpenExamPrep for self-study and revision based on OMSB's published blueprint topics. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by the Oman Medical Specialty Board.