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Free Practice Questions for SMLE

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Sample SMLE Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the SMLE exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 116+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old man presents with 30 minutes of crushing central chest pain radiating to the left arm. ECG shows 2 mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. He arrives at a hospital with on-site primary PCI available within 60 minutes. What is the most appropriate immediate reperfusion strategy?
A.High-dose statin alone
B.Fibrinolysis with alteplase
C.Primary percutaneous coronary intervention
D.Schedule elective coronary angiography in 48 hours
Explanation: This is an inferior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. When primary PCI can be delivered within 120 minutes of first medical contact, it is the preferred reperfusion strategy over fibrinolysis because it achieves higher rates of vessel patency and lower mortality and reinfarction.
2A 70-year-old woman with ischemic cardiomyopathy presents with progressive dyspnea, bilateral basal crackles, and a third heart sound. Echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 30%. Which listed medication class reduces mortality in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
A.Loop diuretics
B.Calcium channel blockers
C.Digoxin
D.ACE inhibitors
Explanation: ACE inhibitors reduce mortality and hospitalization in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. Contemporary guideline-directed therapy also includes an evidence-based beta-blocker, a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, and an SGLT2 inhibitor, with an ARNI replacing the ACE inhibitor when appropriate.
3A 68-year-old man is found to have an irregularly irregular pulse, and ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. He has hypertension and diabetes and a prior transient ischemic attack. His CHA2DS2-VASc score is 5. What is the most appropriate long-term management to reduce stroke risk?
A.Aspirin 81 mg daily
B.Oral anticoagulation
C.No therapy as he is asymptomatic
D.Clopidogrel monotherapy
Explanation: A CHA2DS2-VASc score of 5 indicates high thromboembolic risk, and oral anticoagulation (a direct oral anticoagulant or warfarin) is indicated to prevent stroke. Anticoagulation substantially outperforms antiplatelet therapy for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation.
4A 24-year-old man presents with episodic wheeze, cough, and breathlessness that worsen at night and with exercise. Spirometry shows an obstructive pattern with an FEV1 increase of 15% and 250 mL after a bronchodilator. According to current asthma guidelines, what is the recommended controller foundation of therapy?
A.Inhaled corticosteroid-containing therapy
B.Regular oral montelukast alone
C.Short-acting beta-agonist used as needed only
D.Long-term oral corticosteroids
Explanation: Inhaled corticosteroid-containing therapy (often combined with formoterol) is the foundation of asthma controller treatment because it addresses the underlying airway inflammation and reduces exacerbations and mortality. SABA-only treatment is no longer recommended even in mild asthma.
5A 67-year-old man with a 40-pack-year smoking history presents with chronic productive cough and progressive exertional dyspnea. Post-bronchodilator spirometry shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.62. Which finding most strongly confirms a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
A.Reversibility of more than 20% with bronchodilator
B.Raised serum eosinophils
C.Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC less than 0.70
D.Restrictive pattern on spirometry
Explanation: A persistent post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio below 0.70 confirms airflow limitation that is not fully reversible, which is the spirometric hallmark of COPD. Clinical context of chronic symptoms and smoking exposure supports the diagnosis.
6A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea 5 days after knee surgery. She is tachycardic with an oxygen saturation of 90%. A CT pulmonary angiogram confirms a pulmonary embolism, and she is hemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
A.Systemic thrombolysis
B.Aspirin only
C.Inferior vena cava filter placement
D.Therapeutic anticoagulation
Explanation: For a hemodynamically stable acute pulmonary embolism, therapeutic anticoagulation (such as low-molecular-weight heparin transitioning to a direct oral anticoagulant) is the standard of care. Thrombolysis is reserved for hemodynamic instability.
7A 50-year-old man presents with epigastric pain relieved by food and antacids. Endoscopy shows a duodenal ulcer, and a urea breath test is positive for Helicobacter pylori. Which regimen is the most appropriate first-line eradication therapy?
A.Proton pump inhibitor alone for 8 weeks
B.Fourteen-day bismuth quadruple therapy
C.Antacid plus sucralfate
D.H2 receptor antagonist monotherapy
Explanation: Helicobacter pylori-associated peptic ulcer disease requires eradication. When antibiotic susceptibility is unknown, current guidance favors 14-day bismuth quadruple therapy with a proton pump inhibitor, bismuth, tetracycline, and metronidazole because clarithromycin resistance makes empirical clarithromycin triple therapy unreliable.
8A 28-year-old woman presents with chronic bloody diarrhea, urgency, and tenesmus. Colonoscopy shows continuous inflammation extending proximally from the rectum with loss of vascular pattern, and biopsies show crypt abscesses limited to the mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Ulcerative colitis
B.Crohn disease
C.Ischemic colitis
D.Celiac disease
Explanation: Continuous mucosal inflammation starting at the rectum and extending proximally, with crypt abscesses confined to the mucosa, is characteristic of ulcerative colitis. Crohn disease typically shows skip lesions and transmural, granulomatous inflammation.
9A 55-year-old man with chronic hepatitis B cirrhosis presents with increasing abdominal distension and confusion. Examination shows asterixis and ascites. His ammonia is elevated. What is the first-line treatment for his hepatic encephalopathy?
A.Intravenous albumin
B.Protein restriction indefinitely
C.Lactulose
D.Spironolactone
Explanation: Lactulose is the first-line therapy for hepatic encephalopathy; it acidifies the colon and reduces ammonia absorption. Identifying and treating precipitants such as infection or GI bleeding is also essential.
10A 62-year-old man develops acute kidney injury after several days of gentamicin therapy. Urinalysis shows muddy brown granular casts, and the fractional excretion of sodium is greater than 2%. Which type of acute kidney injury is most likely?
A.Prerenal azotemia
B.Glomerulonephritis
C.Postrenal obstruction
D.Acute tubular necrosis
Explanation: Muddy brown granular casts and a fractional excretion of sodium greater than 2% support intrinsic acute tubular necrosis. Aminoglycosides such as gentamicin are established nephrotoxins that can injure proximal tubular cells.

About the SMLE Exam

The Saudi Medical Licensure Examination is SCFHS's computer-based assessment of knowledge and its application for safe medical practice. SCFHS approves candidate eligibility; booking uses a scheduling permit at an approved Prometric centre. Passing does not itself complete professional registration or guarantee residency admission.

Exam sponsor: Saudi Commission for Health Specialties (SCFHS). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

200 multiple-choice questions in two parts of 100; up to 10% may be pilot questions; four options with one best answer.

Time Limit

240 minutes of testing (two 120-minute parts), plus a 30-minute scheduled break

Passing Score

560 on the SCFHS reporting scale of 200–800

Exam / Certification Fees

Check the current SCFHS/Prometric booking fee for your eligibility and test location

Exam sponsor website

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

30%

Medicine

Adult medicine across the systems and topics listed in the current SCFHS clinical blueprint; the separate patient safety, preventive medicine and ethics list has no published independent weight.

25%

Obstetrics and Gynecology

General obstetrics, intrapartum and antepartum care, and gynecology including bleeding disorders, infertility and oncology.

25%

Pediatrics

Childhood acute and chronic conditions, neonatology, immunization and development across all organ systems.

20%

Surgery

Basic surgical principles, general surgery, trauma and acute care surgery, and surgical subspecialties.

Preparing for the SMLE Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 560 on the SCFHS reporting scale of 200–800
  • Assessment: 200 multiple-choice questions in two parts of 100; up to 10% may be pilot questions; four options with one best answer.
  • Time limit: 240 minutes of testing (two 120-minute parts), plus a 30-minute scheduled break
  • Exam / certification fees: Check the current SCFHS/Prometric booking fee for your eligibility and test location Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 116 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

SMLE: Suggested Study Strategy

1Anchor your revision to the official 30/25/25/20 blueprint (Medicine, OB-GYN, Pediatrics, Surgery) and prioritize high-mastery-level topics listed in the SCFHS content outline.
2Practise both recall MCQs and clinical vignettes testing interpretation, diagnosis and management, as described in the current SCFHS guide.
3Use the currently linked SCFHS content guideline for topic scope and current Saudi clinical guidance for local care, epidemiology and vaccination policy; avoid replacing published domain weights with anecdotal topic frequencies.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions and how much testing time does the current SMLE have?

The currently linked SCFHS 2026 guideline specifies two parts of 100 questions, each lasting 120 minutes, plus a scheduled 30-minute break. Up to 10% may be pilot questions. The 50 flashcards here are a study-set count, not the real exam length.

What is the SMLE passing score?

SCFHS's current content guideline states 560 on a reporting scale of 200–800. This is a scaled score, not a raw percentage or a guaranteed number of correct answers.

How are these cards distributed?

SCFHS publishes Medicine 30%, OB-GYN 25%, Pediatrics 25% and Surgery 20%. This independent 50-card selection uses 15, 13, 12 and 10 cards respectively, with the rounding tie assigned to OB-GYN. It is a selective recall aid, not a complete syllabus or an official question set.

Who can apply for the SMLE?

The current SCFHS guide lists a recognised MBBS or equivalent degree, commencement of internship training, or being a student one year away from graduation. Saudi university/college students may sit during their final undergraduate year. SCFHS must approve eligibility and issue a scheduling permit before booking.

How many attempts and what retake wait apply?

SCFHS publications differ: its licensure-exams hub grants two additional attempts after an unsuccessful first attempt and says opportunities may renew one year from that first attempt; the currently linked SMLE 2026 PDF says up to four attempts a year from the first attempt. The PDF prohibits two sittings in one testing window. Confirm the opportunities and dates in your current Mumaris+ eligibility with SCFHS; these sources do not establish a universal fixed-day wait.

What SMLE pass rate should I use?

SCFHS's university-performance reporting uses passing attempts divided by all attempts during the academic year, including repeat attempts. Institution and reporting-period results do not predict an individual candidate's result; no universal current rate is asserted here.