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100+ Free SMLE Practice Questions

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A 3-year-old child presents with sudden-onset coughing, choking, and unilateral wheeze after playing with small toys. Chest examination reveals reduced air entry on the right with hyperinflation on expiratory X-ray. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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B
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Sample SMLE Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your SMLE exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old man presents with 30 minutes of crushing central chest pain radiating to the left arm. ECG shows 2 mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. He arrives at a hospital with on-site primary PCI available within 60 minutes. What is the most appropriate immediate reperfusion strategy?
A.High-dose statin alone
B.Fibrinolysis with alteplase
C.Primary percutaneous coronary intervention
D.Schedule elective coronary angiography in 48 hours
Explanation: This is an inferior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. When primary PCI can be delivered within 120 minutes of first medical contact, it is the preferred reperfusion strategy over fibrinolysis because it achieves higher rates of vessel patency and lower mortality and reinfarction.
2A 70-year-old woman with ischemic cardiomyopathy presents with progressive dyspnea, bilateral basal crackles, and a third heart sound. Echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 30%. Which medication class has the strongest evidence for reducing mortality in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
A.Loop diuretics
B.Calcium channel blockers
C.Digoxin
D.Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
Explanation: ACE inhibitors are a cornerstone of guideline-directed medical therapy for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and reduce both mortality and hospitalization. They are combined with beta-blockers, mineralocorticoid antagonists, and SGLT2 inhibitors for maximal benefit.
3A 68-year-old man is found to have an irregularly irregular pulse, and ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. He has hypertension and diabetes and a prior transient ischemic attack. His CHA2DS2-VASc score is 5. What is the most appropriate long-term management to reduce stroke risk?
A.Aspirin 81 mg daily
B.Oral anticoagulation
C.No therapy as he is asymptomatic
D.Clopidogrel monotherapy
Explanation: A CHA2DS2-VASc score of 5 indicates high thromboembolic risk, and oral anticoagulation (a direct oral anticoagulant or warfarin) is indicated to prevent stroke. Anticoagulation substantially outperforms antiplatelet therapy for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation.
4A 24-year-old man presents with episodic wheeze, cough, and breathlessness that worsen at night and with exercise. Spirometry shows an obstructive pattern that reverses by 15% after a bronchodilator. According to current asthma guidelines, what is the recommended controller foundation of therapy?
A.Inhaled corticosteroid-containing therapy
B.Regular oral montelukast alone
C.Short-acting beta-agonist used as needed only
D.Long-term oral corticosteroids
Explanation: Inhaled corticosteroid-containing therapy (often combined with formoterol) is the foundation of asthma controller treatment because it addresses the underlying airway inflammation and reduces exacerbations and mortality. SABA-only treatment is no longer recommended even in mild asthma.
5A 67-year-old man with a 40-pack-year smoking history presents with chronic productive cough and progressive exertional dyspnea. Post-bronchodilator spirometry shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.62. Which finding most strongly confirms a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
A.Reversibility of more than 20% with bronchodilator
B.Raised serum eosinophils
C.Post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC less than 0.70
D.Restrictive pattern on spirometry
Explanation: A persistent post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio below 0.70 confirms airflow limitation that is not fully reversible, which is the spirometric hallmark of COPD. Clinical context of chronic symptoms and smoking exposure supports the diagnosis.
6A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea 5 days after knee surgery. She is tachycardic with an oxygen saturation of 90%. A CT pulmonary angiogram confirms a pulmonary embolism, and she is hemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
A.Systemic thrombolysis
B.Aspirin only
C.Inferior vena cava filter placement
D.Therapeutic anticoagulation
Explanation: For a hemodynamically stable acute pulmonary embolism, therapeutic anticoagulation (such as low-molecular-weight heparin transitioning to a direct oral anticoagulant) is the standard of care. Thrombolysis is reserved for hemodynamic instability.
7A 50-year-old man presents with epigastric pain relieved by food and antacids. Endoscopy shows a duodenal ulcer, and a urea breath test is positive for Helicobacter pylori. Which regimen is the most appropriate first-line eradication therapy?
A.Proton pump inhibitor alone for 8 weeks
B.Proton pump inhibitor plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin
C.Antacid plus sucralfate
D.H2 receptor antagonist monotherapy
Explanation: Helicobacter pylori-associated peptic ulcer disease requires eradication, classically with a proton pump inhibitor plus two antibiotics (clarithromycin-based triple therapy with amoxicillin, where resistance is low). Eradication promotes ulcer healing and prevents recurrence.
8A 28-year-old woman presents with chronic bloody diarrhea, urgency, and tenesmus. Colonoscopy shows continuous inflammation extending proximally from the rectum with loss of vascular pattern, and biopsies show crypt abscesses limited to the mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Ulcerative colitis
B.Crohn disease
C.Ischemic colitis
D.Celiac disease
Explanation: Continuous mucosal inflammation starting at the rectum and extending proximally, with crypt abscesses confined to the mucosa, is characteristic of ulcerative colitis. Crohn disease typically shows skip lesions and transmural, granulomatous inflammation.
9A 55-year-old man with chronic hepatitis B cirrhosis presents with increasing abdominal distension and confusion. Examination shows asterixis and ascites. His ammonia is elevated. What is the first-line treatment for his hepatic encephalopathy?
A.Intravenous albumin
B.Protein restriction indefinitely
C.Lactulose
D.Spironolactone
Explanation: Lactulose is the first-line therapy for hepatic encephalopathy; it acidifies the colon and reduces ammonia absorption. Identifying and treating precipitants such as infection or GI bleeding is also essential.
10A 62-year-old man develops acute kidney injury after starting an NSAID. Urinalysis shows muddy brown granular casts, and the fractional excretion of sodium is greater than 2%. Which type of acute kidney injury is most likely?
A.Prerenal azotemia
B.Glomerulonephritis
C.Postrenal obstruction
D.Acute tubular necrosis
Explanation: Muddy brown granular casts and a fractional excretion of sodium greater than 2% indicate intrinsic acute tubular necrosis. NSAIDs and ischemia are common precipitants of tubular injury.

About the SMLE Exam

The SMLE is the Saudi Commission for Health Specialties' licensing examination required to practice medicine in Saudi Arabia or enter postgraduate (Saudi Board) training. Delivered as a computer-based test through Prometric, it now comprises 200 MCQs across four clinical disciplines, mapped to the SaudiMEDs competency framework.

Assessment

200 MCQs (up to 20 unscored pilot items) in two sections of 100 questions; single best answer from four options.

Time Limit

4 hours: two 120-minute sections with one 30-minute scheduled break.

Passing Score

560 on a 200-800 scaled score (standard-set in 2017, applied since June 2017).

Exam Fee

Approximately USD 220-250 through Prometric, varying by test center; rescheduling and cancellation fees apply. (Saudi Commission for Health Specialties (SCFHS))

SMLE Exam Content Outline

30%

Medicine

Internal medicine across all major systems plus mapped preventive medicine, ethics, patient safety and biostatistics content.

25%

Obstetrics and Gynecology

General obstetrics, intrapartum and antepartum care, and gynecology including bleeding disorders, infertility and oncology.

25%

Pediatrics

Childhood acute and chronic conditions, neonatology, immunization and development across all organ systems.

20%

Surgery

Basic surgical principles, general surgery, trauma and acute care surgery, and surgical subspecialties.

How to Pass the SMLE Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 560 on a 200-800 scaled score (standard-set in 2017, applied since June 2017).
  • Assessment: 200 MCQs (up to 20 unscored pilot items) in two sections of 100 questions; single best answer from four options.
  • Time limit: 4 hours: two 120-minute sections with one 30-minute scheduled break.
  • Exam fee: Approximately USD 220-250 through Prometric, varying by test center; rescheduling and cancellation fees apply.

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

SMLE Study Tips from Top Performers

1Anchor your revision to the official 30/25/25/20 blueprint (Medicine, OB-GYN, Pediatrics, Surgery) and prioritize high-mastery-level topics listed in the SCFHS content outline.
2Practice with clinical-vignette MCQs that test diagnosis and management decisions, since the SMLE emphasizes applied reasoning over pure recall.
3Use Saudi-relevant epidemiology (sickle cell disease in the Eastern Province, brucellosis, MERS-CoV, and the national immunization schedule) and the SCFHS Applicant Guide as your primary reference.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the SMLE and how long is it?

The SMLE consists of 200 MCQs (including up to 20 unscored pilot items), split into two sections of 100 questions. The total testing time is 4 hours, with a single 30-minute scheduled break between the two 120-minute sections.

What is the passing score for the SMLE?

The SMLE is reported on a scaled score from 200 to 800. The passing score is 560, established through an SCFHS standard-setting exercise in April 2017 and applied to exams from June 2017 onward.

What topics does the SMLE cover and how are they weighted?

The official SCFHS blueprint weights four disciplines: Medicine 30%, Obstetrics and Gynecology 25%, Pediatrics 25%, and Surgery 20%. Distributions may vary by plus or minus 5% per category, and preventive medicine, ethics and biostatistics are embedded within these sections.

Who administers the SMLE and where is it taken?

The SMLE is run by the Saudi Commission for Health Specialties (SCFHS) and delivered as a computer-based test at approved Prometric testing centers in Saudi Arabia and internationally.