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100+ Free DOH Doctor Exam Practice Questions

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A 40-year-old man with alcohol dependence is admitted and stops drinking abruptly. Two days later he develops tremor, agitation, visual hallucinations, sweating and a seizure. Which medication class is first-line to manage alcohol withdrawal?

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Sample DOH Doctor Exam Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your DOH Doctor Exam exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents for routine review. His office blood pressure is 150/92 mmHg on two separate visits and he has albuminuria (urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio 45 mg/mmol). Which antihypertensive class is most appropriate as first-line therapy?
A.Thiazide diuretic
B.ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker
C.Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker
D.Beta-blocker
Explanation: In diabetic patients with albuminuria, ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line because they reduce intraglomerular pressure and slow progression of diabetic nephropathy, providing renoprotection beyond blood-pressure lowering. Both classes reduce albuminuria and cardiovascular events in this population.
2A 65-year-old woman presents with acute central crushing chest pain for 40 minutes. ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
A.Left anterior descending artery
B.Right coronary artery
C.Left circumflex artery
D.Left main coronary artery
Explanation: ST elevation in the inferior leads II, III and aVF indicates an inferior myocardial infarction, which in most people results from occlusion of the right coronary artery because it supplies the inferior wall via the posterior descending artery in right-dominant circulation.
3A 24-year-old man presents with a 3-week history of polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss. Random plasma glucose is 22 mmol/L and venous blood gas shows pH 7.25 with bicarbonate 14 mmol/L; urine ketones are strongly positive. What is the single most important immediate intervention?
A.Subcutaneous long-acting insulin
B.Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride fluid resuscitation
C.Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
D.Oral metformin
Explanation: This is diabetic ketoacidosis. The priority is intravenous isotonic saline to correct the profound fluid deficit and restore circulating volume; this improves tissue perfusion and reduces counter-regulatory hormone drive before and alongside an insulin infusion.
4A 70-year-old woman with chronic atrial fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 4 and no contraindications to anticoagulation. What is the most appropriate long-term therapy to reduce her stroke risk?
A.Aspirin 75 mg daily
B.Oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant or warfarin
C.Clopidogrel 75 mg daily
D.No antithrombotic therapy
Explanation: A CHA2DS2-VASc score of 4 indicates high stroke risk, so oral anticoagulation is indicated. Direct oral anticoagulants (or warfarin with target INR 2-3) substantially reduce thromboembolic stroke and are preferred over antiplatelet therapy.
5A 45-year-old man presents with episodic wheeze, cough and breathlessness worse at night and after exercise. Spirometry shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.62 that improves to 0.78 after inhaled salbutamol. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
B.Asthma
C.Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D.Congestive heart failure
Explanation: Variable nocturnal and exertional symptoms with airflow obstruction that significantly reverses (FEV1/FVC improving by more than 12% and 200 mL) after a bronchodilator is diagnostic of asthma, which is characterised by reversible airway obstruction.
6A 60-year-old man with a 40 pack-year smoking history has progressive exertional dyspnoea. Spirometry shows post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC of 0.58 with FEV1 55% predicted. Which intervention has been shown to most improve survival in this condition?
A.Inhaled corticosteroids
B.Smoking cessation
C.Regular oral theophylline
D.Mucolytic therapy
Explanation: This is COPD. Smoking cessation is the single most effective intervention, slowing the accelerated decline in FEV1 and reducing mortality. Long-term oxygen therapy in chronic hypoxaemia is the only other intervention shown to improve survival.
7A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain and constipation. TSH is 12 mIU/L (raised) and free T4 is low. What is the most appropriate treatment?
A.Carbimazole
B.Propranolol
C.Radioactive iodine
D.Levothyroxine
Explanation: Raised TSH with low free T4 indicates primary hypothyroidism. Levothyroxine replacement restores euthyroid status; the dose is titrated against TSH every 6-8 weeks until normalised.
8A 28-year-old woman presents with weight loss, palpitations, heat intolerance and a fine tremor. She has a diffuse goitre and bilateral exophthalmos. TSH is suppressed and free T4 elevated. Which finding is most specific for the underlying diagnosis?
A.Tachycardia
B.Thyroid eye disease (exophthalmos)
C.Weight loss
D.Fine tremor
Explanation: The picture is Graves' disease. Thyroid eye disease (exophthalmos) and pretibial myxoedema are extrathyroidal manifestations specific to Graves' autoimmune disease, distinguishing it from other causes of thyrotoxicosis such as toxic nodular goitre.
9A 50-year-old man presents with severe acute pain and swelling of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Joint aspiration shows negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals under polarised light. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this acute attack if there are no contraindications?
A.Allopurinol
B.An NSAID such as naproxen
C.Long-term colchicine prophylaxis only
D.Intravenous antibiotics
Explanation: Negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals confirm acute gout. An NSAID (or colchicine, or corticosteroid) is first-line for the acute attack to control inflammation and pain.
10A 30-year-old woman presents with a malar rash, photosensitivity, oral ulcers and arthralgia. Antinuclear antibody is positive and anti-double-stranded DNA antibody is strongly positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Rheumatoid arthritis
B.Systemic lupus erythematosus
C.Systemic sclerosis
D.Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation: Malar rash, photosensitivity, oral ulcers and arthralgia with a positive ANA and high-titre anti-dsDNA antibody are characteristic of systemic lupus erythematosus. Anti-dsDNA is highly specific for SLE and correlates with disease activity.

About the DOH Doctor Exam Exam

The DOH (formerly HAAD) licensing assessment is the mandatory examination for doctors who wish to practise in the emirate of Abu Dhabi. The General Practitioner exam is a Pearson VUE computer-based test of approximately 150 single-best-answer MCQs taken in about 165 minutes, covering core clinical specialties plus professionalism, ethics and patient safety.

Assessment

Computer-based single-best-answer MCQ test for the General Practitioner category, approximately 150 questions, delivered via Pearson VUE.

Time Limit

Approximately 165 minutes (about 2.5-3 hours)

Passing Score

No fixed pass mark is officially published by DOH; physician thresholds are commonly reported as roughly 60-65% (candidate-reported). Rely on your TAMM eligibility instructions for the definitive standard.

Exam Fee

Around AED 100 DOH pre-booking fee plus a Pearson VUE fee of roughly USD 74-95, in addition to DataFlow primary source verification costs. Fees change periodically. (Department of Health Abu Dhabi (DOH, formerly HAAD))

DOH Doctor Exam Exam Content Outline

28%

Internal Medicine

Cardiology, respiratory, endocrine, GI, renal, infectious disease, rheumatology and haematology problems seen in general practice.

11%

Pediatrics

Common childhood illness, neonatal problems, growth and development, and pediatric emergencies.

11%

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Antenatal care, obstetric emergencies, contraception, menstrual disorders and gynaecological conditions.

9%

General Surgery

Acute abdomen, hernias, biliary and bowel disease, and vascular surgical emergencies.

8%

Emergency Medicine

Resuscitation, anaphylaxis, trauma, toxicology, ACS and environmental emergencies including heat stroke.

5%

Psychiatry

Mood disorders, psychosis, anxiety, substance misuse and perinatal mental health.

4%

Dermatology

Common rashes, skin infections, psoriasis and skin cancer recognition.

4%

Orthopedics and Musculoskeletal

Fractures, sprains, back pain, radiculopathy and orthopaedic emergencies.

3%

Ophthalmology

Acute red eye, sudden visual loss and diabetic retinopathy.

3%

Otolaryngology

Otitis media, vertigo and head and neck red-flag presentations.

5%

Professionalism and Ethics

Consent, capacity, confidentiality, conflicts of interest and raising concerns.

4%

Patient Safety

Medication safety, surgical checklists, infection control and just-culture error analysis.

5%

UAE and Abu Dhabi Health Regulations

DOH licensing, DataFlow verification, CME/CPD renewal, notifiable diseases and exam logistics.

How to Pass the DOH Doctor Exam Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: No fixed pass mark is officially published by DOH; physician thresholds are commonly reported as roughly 60-65% (candidate-reported). Rely on your TAMM eligibility instructions for the definitive standard.
  • Assessment: Computer-based single-best-answer MCQ test for the General Practitioner category, approximately 150 questions, delivered via Pearson VUE.
  • Time limit: Approximately 165 minutes (about 2.5-3 hours)
  • Exam fee: Around AED 100 DOH pre-booking fee plus a Pearson VUE fee of roughly USD 74-95, in addition to DataFlow primary source verification costs. Fees change periodically.

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

DOH Doctor Exam Study Tips from Top Performers

1Use the unified UAE Professional Qualification Requirements (PQR) as your syllabus map and weight your revision toward internal medicine, which dominates the GP blueprint.
2Practise full-length timed clinical-vignette MCQs, because most DOH questions are scenario-based and time management is a common cause of failure.
3Do not neglect professionalism, ethics, patient safety and UAE-specific regulations, as these topics appear on the exam and are easy marks if revised.

Frequently Asked Questions

Who administers the DOH doctor exam and where can I take it?

The Department of Health Abu Dhabi (DOH, formerly HAAD) regulates licensing in the emirate of Abu Dhabi, and the assessment is delivered as a computer-based test through Pearson VUE test centres, which exist in the UAE and many countries worldwide.

How many questions are on the DOH GP exam and how long is it?

The General Practitioner category is widely reported as approximately 150 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions completed in about 165 minutes (roughly 2.5-3 hours). Always confirm the exact count for your title in your TAMM eligibility message.

What is the passing score for the DOH doctor exam?

DOH does not officially publish a fixed pass percentage. For physicians, a threshold of around 60-65% is commonly reported by candidates, though the definitive standard is provided to you through TAMM. Aim to score consistently above 70% in practice.

What do I need to do before I can sit the exam?

Internationally trained doctors must complete DataFlow primary source verification of their qualifications and apply through the DOH/TAMM portal. Once eligible, you receive instructions to schedule the Pearson VUE exam.