Free DHA GP Exam Exam Flashcards
Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the DHA Healthcare Professional Licensing Assessment - General Practitioner/Doctor. See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.
A newly diagnosed type 2 diabetic has no contraindications. What HbA1c target and first medication should you set?
Target HbA1c <7% for most adults; start metformin first-line unless contraindicated (e.g., eGFR <30, significant hepatic impairment).
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About These DHA GP Exam Flashcards
These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the DHA Healthcare Professional Licensing Assessment - General Practitioner/Doctor. Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.
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Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.
A newly diagnosed type 2 diabetic has no contraindications. What HbA1c target and first medication should you set?
Target HbA1c <7% for most adults; start metformin first-line unless contraindicated (e.g., eGFR <30, significant hepatic impairment).
Your type 2 diabetic patient has established ASCVD. Which drug class should you add regardless of HbA1c control?
Add an SGLT2 inhibitor or GLP-1 receptor agonist - these classes have proven cardiovascular benefit independent of glycaemic control.
A diabetic patient reports shakiness and sweating with capillary glucose 3.0 mmol/L. What is first-line treatment?
Give 15-20g of fast-acting carbohydrate (e.g., glucose tablets or juice), recheck glucose in 15 minutes, and repeat if still low.
What three findings confirm diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Hyperglycaemia, ketosis (raised blood or urine ketones), and metabolic acidosis (pH <7.3 or low bicarbonate) - all three must be present.
What are the office blood pressure targets for a general adult versus a diabetic or CKD patient?
General adult: <140/90 mmHg. Diabetic or CKD patient: a tighter target of <130/80 mmHg because of higher cardiovascular and renal risk.
A diabetic patient has microalbuminuria and hypertension. What is the first-line antihypertensive?
An ACE inhibitor or ARB - these classes are renoprotective and specifically indicated when albuminuria is present.
A patient's blood pressure remains uncontrolled on three antihypertensives (ACEi/ARB + CCB + thiazide) at full dose. What do you add next?
Add spironolactone as the step-4 agent for resistant hypertension, provided potassium and renal function allow it.
What single prescribing rule must you never break when starting a LABA in asthma?
Never prescribe a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) alone - it must always be combined with an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS), since LABA monotherapy raises the risk of severe exacerbation and death.
What defines CKD stage 3?
eGFR 30-59 mL/min/1.73m^2 - stage 3 is often subdivided into 3a (45-59) and 3b (30-44).
What is first-line treatment for primary hypothyroidism, and how do you monitor it?
Levothyroxine, with the dose titrated against serial TSH levels, aiming for TSH within the normal reference range.
What is first-line antibiotic therapy for mild community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) treated as an outpatient?
Amoxicillin or a macrolide (e.g., clarithromycin) - reserve broader-spectrum agents for more severe or hospital-treated cases.
A CAP patient scores CURB-65 = 2 (Confusion, Urea, Respiratory rate, Blood pressure, Age >=65). What does this score trigger?
A score of 2 indicates moderate severity and should prompt consideration of hospital admission; a score of 0-1 suggests outpatient management is usually safe.
What is the first-line antibiotic and duration for an uncomplicated UTI in a non-pregnant woman?
Nitrofurantoin for 5 days - first-line for uncomplicated lower UTI because of low resistance rates and minimal systemic absorption.
What is first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis?
Flucloxacillin or cephalexin - both cover the streptococcal and staphylococcal organisms typically responsible.
Contrast a patient with microcytic anaemia and low ferritin against one with macrocytic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy.
Microcytic anaemia with low ferritin points to iron-deficiency anaemia (investigate for GI blood loss). Macrocytic anaemia with neuropathy points to B12 deficiency, which can cause subacute combined degeneration of the cord if untreated.
What does the FAST screen check for suspected stroke, and what is the key thrombolysis time window?
FAST = Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call for help. IV thrombolysis (alteplase) should be given within 4.5 hours of symptom onset.
What headache feature is an absolute red flag requiring urgent same-day imaging?
Thunderclap onset - a sudden, severe 'worst-ever' headache reaching maximum intensity within seconds to minutes - raises concern for subarachnoid haemorrhage.
What is the ABCDE order of the primary survey in any medical or trauma emergency?
Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure - always assessed and treated in this order before moving to the next step.
During adult CPR with a single rescuer and an unprotected airway, what compression rate, depth, and compression-to-ventilation ratio should you use?
Rate 100-120 per minute, depth 5-6 cm, ratio 30 compressions to 2 ventilations.
A patient develops anaphylaxis after a bee sting. What is the immediate drug, dose, route, and injection site?
Adrenaline 0.5 mg IM (0.5 mL of 1:1000), given into the anterolateral thigh; repeat every 5-15 minutes if there is no improvement.
A patient's ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which territory and artery are involved, and what is the reperfusion time goal?
Inferior STEMI, most commonly from occlusion of the right coronary artery (RCA). Aim for reperfusion (PCI) within 90-120 minutes of first medical contact.
A patient looks unwell with fever, tachycardia, and confusion. What time-critical bundle should you start within 1 hour if sepsis is suspected?
The Sepsis Six: give oxygen, IV fluids, and IV antibiotics; take blood cultures and serum lactate; monitor urine output - all within the first hour.
What vaccines are given at the 2- and 4-month UAE immunisation visits, and how many rotavirus doses are in the series?
Hexavalent (DTaP-IPV-HepB-Hib), PCV, and rotavirus are given at both 2 and 4 months. The rotavirus dose count depends on the brand used: RV1 (Rotarix), used in UAE government facilities, is a 2-dose series (2 and 4 months); RV5 (RotaTeq), used in the private sector, is a 3-dose series with a third dose at 6 months.
What is given to every newborn at birth in the UAE immunisation schedule?
BCG vaccine, Hepatitis B vaccine, and intramuscular Vitamin K (to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn).
A toddler has a barking cough and stridor. What single red-flag symptom should make you suspect epiglottitis instead of croup?
Drooling with a toxic, tripod-positioned child suggests epiglottitis, a life-threatening emergency - croup is typically less acutely unwell despite the stridor.
What defines a typical (simple) febrile seizure?
Age 6 months to 5 years, generalised (not focal), lasting under 15 minutes, with no recurrence within 24 hours.
By what age should a healthy infant show a social smile, sit unsupported, and walk independently?
Social smile by 6-8 weeks, sits unsupported by 6 months, walks independently by 12-15 months.
What is the classic triad of ectopic pregnancy?
Amenorrhoea, abdominal/pelvic pain, and vaginal bleeding - many patients present with only some of these features, so a low threshold for beta-hCG and ultrasound is essential.
How is pre-eclampsia defined, and when can it first appear?
New blood pressure >=140/90 mmHg plus proteinuria, arising after 20 weeks of gestation - earlier hypertension is classified separately as chronic hypertension.
When should you screen for gestational diabetes, and with what test?
An oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks gestation is the standard screening window.
What is the empirical antibiotic regimen for suspected pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Ceftriaxone (single IM dose) plus doxycycline, often with metronidazole added for anaerobic/bacterial vaginosis coverage.
What examination finding classically localises appendicitis?
Tenderness at McBurney's point (right iliac fossa, one-third of the way from the ASIS to the umbilicus), often with rebound tenderness.
What sign confirms acute cholecystitis on examination?
Murphy's sign - arrest of inspiration when the examiner's hand palpates the right upper quadrant as the patient breathes in, due to pain from the inflamed gallbladder.
A teenage boy has sudden severe testicular pain. What is the maximum time window for surgical exploration to save the testis?
Explore within 6 hours of symptom onset for testicular torsion - salvage rates fall sharply after this window, making it a same-hour surgical emergency, not an imaging-first workup.
What is the classic triad of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)?
Abdominal or back pain, hypotension, and a pulsatile abdominal mass - the full triad is often absent, so any two features in an older patient warrant urgent imaging.
When assessing suicide risk, what three things must you specifically ask about?
Plan, intent, and means - a patient with a specific plan, clear intent, and access to lethal means is at highest immediate risk.
What single feature best distinguishes delirium from dementia?
Onset and course: delirium is acute (hours to days) with fluctuating consciousness and attention and is often reversible; dementia is chronic, progressive, and consciousness stays stable.
A patient stopped drinking alcohol 60 hours ago and is now agitated with tremor. What is happening, and what is first-line treatment?
This falls in the peak window for delirium tremens (typically 48-72 hours post-last-drink); first-line treatment is a benzodiazepine such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam.
A patient has a painful red eye, halos around lights, and a fixed, mid-dilated pupil. What is the diagnosis and why is it an emergency?
Acute angle-closure glaucoma - untreated, rapidly rising intraocular pressure can cause permanent optic nerve damage and vision loss within hours.
When antibiotics are indicated for acute otitis media, what is first-line?
Amoxicillin - many uncomplicated cases in children over 2 resolve without antibiotics, so watchful waiting is often appropriate first.
What is the first-line treatment for scabies, and who else needs treating?
Permethrin 5% cream applied to the whole body - all household and close contacts must be treated simultaneously, even if asymptomatic, to prevent reinfestation.
What ABCDE features should raise concern for melanoma in a pigmented skin lesion?
Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, Diameter greater than 6mm, and Evolution (change in size, shape, or colour over time).
What does the biopsychosocial model add to purely biomedical patient assessment?
It requires considering psychological factors (mood, beliefs, coping) and social factors (family, work, environment) alongside biological disease, not disease alone.
What are the 5 A's for a brief smoking-cessation intervention in primary care?
Ask about tobacco use, Advise to quit, Assess readiness to quit, Assist with a quit plan, Arrange follow-up.
What distinguishes primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention?
Primary prevents disease before it starts (e.g., immunisation). Secondary detects disease early via screening in asymptomatic people. Tertiary reduces complications and disability in patients who already have disease.
How often should average-risk women undergo cervical cancer screening?
Roughly every 3-5 years depending on age and whether cytology alone or HPV co-testing is used - more frequent screening is not recommended for average-risk women.
What is the difference between a test's sensitivity and its specificity?
Sensitivity is the proportion of true positives correctly identified (a highly sensitive test, when negative, helps rule OUT disease - 'SnNOUT'). Specificity is the proportion of true negatives correctly identified (a highly specific test, when positive, helps rule IN disease - 'SpPIN').
What does 'number needed to treat' (NNT) tell you?
The number of patients who must receive a treatment for one additional patient to benefit, compared with the control - a lower NNT means a more effective treatment.
Under what circumstance can you break patient confidentiality without consent?
When there is a risk of serious harm to the patient or to others (e.g., safeguarding concerns, notifiable communicable disease, court order) - confidentiality is not absolute in these situations.
If you make a medical error that harms a patient, what professional duty applies?
The duty of candour - you must disclose the error to the patient promptly, honestly, and with an apology, rather than concealing it.
Frequently Asked Questions
How many questions are on the DHA GP exam and how long do I have?
The DHA General Practice exam (Prometric code GEN5331) has 150 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions and lasts 3 hours (180 minutes). It is a computer-based test delivered in English with no negative marking, so you should attempt every question.
What score do I need to pass the DHA GP exam?
You need 60% overall on the DHA General Practice exam (code GEN5331). Results are reported as pass or fail rather than a detailed score breakdown.
How long do I have to wait if I fail the DHA GP exam?
Independent licensing-consultant sources consistently report a mandatory wait of about 45 days between DHA attempts, with a maximum of 3 attempts, followed by roughly a 1-year lockout if all three are failed. Dubai Health does not publish these figures in a single official table, so confirm the current rule for your case on the Sheryan portal before booking a retake.
Do I need a job offer to sit the DHA GP exam?
No. You can register on the DHA Sheryan portal and sit the Prometric exam as a self-sponsored candidate without a UAE employer. Passing produces an eligibility letter confirming you can practise once licensed; only final license activation requires a sponsoring healthcare employer.
Is the DHA GP exam pass rate published?
No. Dubai Health does not release aggregate pass/fail statistics for the General Practice exam, so no official pass rate percentage can be cited.
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