DHA GP Exam Exam Flashcards

Q: How many questions are on the DHA GP exam and how long do I have?

The DHA General Practice exam (Prometric code GEN5331) has 150 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions and lasts 3 hours (180 minutes). It is a computer-based test delivered in English with no negative marking, so you should attempt every question.

Q: What score do I need to pass the DHA GP exam?

You need 60% overall on the DHA General Practice exam (code GEN5331). Results are reported as pass or fail rather than a detailed score breakdown.

Q: How long do I have to wait if I fail the DHA GP exam?

Independent licensing-consultant sources consistently report a mandatory wait of about 45 days between DHA attempts, with a maximum of 3 attempts, followed by roughly a 1-year lockout if all three are failed. Dubai Health does not publish these figures in a single official table, so confirm the current rule for your case on the Sheryan portal before booking a retake.

Q: Do I need a job offer to sit the DHA GP exam?

No. You can register on the DHA Sheryan portal and sit the Prometric exam as a self-sponsored candidate without a UAE employer. Passing produces an eligibility letter confirming you can practise once licensed; only final license activation requires a sponsoring healthcare employer.

Q: Is the DHA GP exam pass rate published?

No. Dubai Health does not release aggregate pass/fail statistics for the General Practice exam, so no official pass rate percentage can be cited.

Question 1

A newly diagnosed type 2 diabetic has no contraindications. What HbA1c target and first medication should you set?

Accepted Answer

Target HbA1c <7% for most adults; start metformin first-line unless contraindicated (e.g., eGFR <30, significant hepatic impairment).

Question 2

Your type 2 diabetic patient has established ASCVD. Which drug class should you add regardless of HbA1c control?

Accepted Answer

Add an SGLT2 inhibitor or GLP-1 receptor agonist - these classes have proven cardiovascular benefit independent of glycaemic control.

Question 3

A diabetic patient reports shakiness and sweating with capillary glucose 3.0 mmol/L. What is first-line treatment?

Accepted Answer

Give 15-20g of fast-acting carbohydrate (e.g., glucose tablets or juice), recheck glucose in 15 minutes, and repeat if still low.

Question 4

What three findings confirm diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

Accepted Answer

Hyperglycaemia, ketosis (raised blood or urine ketones), and metabolic acidosis (pH <7.3 or low bicarbonate) - all three must be present.

Question 5

What are the office blood pressure targets for a general adult versus a diabetic or CKD patient?

Accepted Answer

General adult: <140/90 mmHg. Diabetic or CKD patient: a tighter target of <130/80 mmHg because of higher cardiovascular and renal risk.

Question 6

A diabetic patient has microalbuminuria and hypertension. What is the first-line antihypertensive?

Accepted Answer

An ACE inhibitor or ARB - these classes are renoprotective and specifically indicated when albuminuria is present.

Question 7

A patient's blood pressure remains uncontrolled on three antihypertensives (ACEi/ARB + CCB + thiazide) at full dose. What do you add next?

Accepted Answer

Add spironolactone as the step-4 agent for resistant hypertension, provided potassium and renal function allow it.

Question 8

What single prescribing rule must you never break when starting a LABA in asthma?

Accepted Answer

Never prescribe a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) alone - it must always be combined with an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS), since LABA monotherapy raises the risk of severe exacerbation and death.

Question 9

What defines CKD stage 3?

Accepted Answer

eGFR 30-59 mL/min/1.73m^2 - stage 3 is often subdivided into 3a (45-59) and 3b (30-44).

Question 10

What is first-line treatment for primary hypothyroidism, and how do you monitor it?

Accepted Answer

Levothyroxine, with the dose titrated against serial TSH levels, aiming for TSH within the normal reference range.

Question 11

What is first-line antibiotic therapy for mild community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) treated as an outpatient?

Accepted Answer

Amoxicillin or a macrolide (e.g., clarithromycin) - reserve broader-spectrum agents for more severe or hospital-treated cases.

Question 12

A CAP patient scores CURB-65 = 2 (Confusion, Urea, Respiratory rate, Blood pressure, Age >=65). What does this score trigger?

Accepted Answer

A score of 2 indicates moderate severity and should prompt consideration of hospital admission; a score of 0-1 suggests outpatient management is usually safe.

Question 13

What is the first-line antibiotic and duration for an uncomplicated UTI in a non-pregnant woman?

Accepted Answer

Nitrofurantoin for 5 days - first-line for uncomplicated lower UTI because of low resistance rates and minimal systemic absorption.

Question 14

What is first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis?

Accepted Answer

Flucloxacillin or cephalexin - both cover the streptococcal and staphylococcal organisms typically responsible.

Question 15

Contrast a patient with microcytic anaemia and low ferritin against one with macrocytic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy.

Accepted Answer

Microcytic anaemia with low ferritin points to iron-deficiency anaemia (investigate for GI blood loss). Macrocytic anaemia with neuropathy points to B12 deficiency, which can cause subacute combined degeneration of the cord if untreated.

Question 16

What does the FAST screen check for suspected stroke, and what is the key thrombolysis time window?

Accepted Answer

FAST = Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call for help. IV thrombolysis (alteplase) should be given within 4.5 hours of symptom onset.

Question 17

What headache feature is an absolute red flag requiring urgent same-day imaging?

Accepted Answer

Thunderclap onset - a sudden, severe 'worst-ever' headache reaching maximum intensity within seconds to minutes - raises concern for subarachnoid haemorrhage.

Question 18

What is the ABCDE order of the primary survey in any medical or trauma emergency?

Accepted Answer

Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure - always assessed and treated in this order before moving to the next step.

Question 19

During adult CPR with a single rescuer and an unprotected airway, what compression rate, depth, and compression-to-ventilation ratio should you use?

Accepted Answer

Rate 100-120 per minute, depth 5-6 cm, ratio 30 compressions to 2 ventilations.

Question 20

A patient develops anaphylaxis after a bee sting. What is the immediate drug, dose, route, and injection site?

Accepted Answer

Adrenaline 0.5 mg IM (0.5 mL of 1:1000), given into the anterolateral thigh; repeat every 5-15 minutes if there is no improvement.

Question 21

A patient's ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which territory and artery are involved, and what is the reperfusion time goal?

Accepted Answer

Inferior STEMI, most commonly from occlusion of the right coronary artery (RCA). Aim for reperfusion (PCI) within 90-120 minutes of first medical contact.

Question 22

A patient looks unwell with fever, tachycardia, and confusion. What time-critical bundle should you start within 1 hour if sepsis is suspected?

Accepted Answer

The Sepsis Six: give oxygen, IV fluids, and IV antibiotics; take blood cultures and serum lactate; monitor urine output - all within the first hour.

Question 23

What vaccines are given at the 2- and 4-month UAE immunisation visits, and how many rotavirus doses are in the series?

Accepted Answer

Hexavalent (DTaP-IPV-HepB-Hib), PCV, and rotavirus are given at both 2 and 4 months. The rotavirus dose count depends on the brand used: RV1 (Rotarix), used in UAE government facilities, is a 2-dose series (2 and 4 months); RV5 (RotaTeq), used in the private sector, is a 3-dose series with a third dose at 6 months.

Question 24

What is given to every newborn at birth in the UAE immunisation schedule?

Accepted Answer

BCG vaccine, Hepatitis B vaccine, and intramuscular Vitamin K (to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn).

Question 25

A toddler has a barking cough and stridor. What single red-flag symptom should make you suspect epiglottitis instead of croup?

Accepted Answer

Drooling with a toxic, tripod-positioned child suggests epiglottitis, a life-threatening emergency - croup is typically less acutely unwell despite the stridor.

Question 26

What defines a typical (simple) febrile seizure?

Accepted Answer

Age 6 months to 5 years, generalised (not focal), lasting under 15 minutes, with no recurrence within 24 hours.

Question 27

By what age should a healthy infant show a social smile, sit unsupported, and walk independently?

Accepted Answer

Social smile by 6-8 weeks, sits unsupported by 6 months, walks independently by 12-15 months.

Question 28

What is the classic triad of ectopic pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Amenorrhoea, abdominal/pelvic pain, and vaginal bleeding - many patients present with only some of these features, so a low threshold for beta-hCG and ultrasound is essential.

Question 29

How is pre-eclampsia defined, and when can it first appear?

Accepted Answer

New blood pressure >=140/90 mmHg plus proteinuria, arising after 20 weeks of gestation - earlier hypertension is classified separately as chronic hypertension.

Question 30

When should you screen for gestational diabetes, and with what test?

Accepted Answer

An oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks gestation is the standard screening window.

Question 31

What is the empirical antibiotic regimen for suspected pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

Accepted Answer

Ceftriaxone (single IM dose) plus doxycycline, often with metronidazole added for anaerobic/bacterial vaginosis coverage.

Question 32

What examination finding classically localises appendicitis?

Accepted Answer

Tenderness at McBurney's point (right iliac fossa, one-third of the way from the ASIS to the umbilicus), often with rebound tenderness.

Question 33

What sign confirms acute cholecystitis on examination?

Accepted Answer

Murphy's sign - arrest of inspiration when the examiner's hand palpates the right upper quadrant as the patient breathes in, due to pain from the inflamed gallbladder.

Question 34

A teenage boy has sudden severe testicular pain. What is the maximum time window for surgical exploration to save the testis?

Accepted Answer

Explore within 6 hours of symptom onset for testicular torsion - salvage rates fall sharply after this window, making it a same-hour surgical emergency, not an imaging-first workup.

Question 35

What is the classic triad of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)?

Accepted Answer

Abdominal or back pain, hypotension, and a pulsatile abdominal mass - the full triad is often absent, so any two features in an older patient warrant urgent imaging.

Question 36

When assessing suicide risk, what three things must you specifically ask about?

Accepted Answer

Plan, intent, and means - a patient with a specific plan, clear intent, and access to lethal means is at highest immediate risk.

Question 37

What single feature best distinguishes delirium from dementia?

Accepted Answer

Onset and course: delirium is acute (hours to days) with fluctuating consciousness and attention and is often reversible; dementia is chronic, progressive, and consciousness stays stable.

Question 38

A patient stopped drinking alcohol 60 hours ago and is now agitated with tremor. What is happening, and what is first-line treatment?

Accepted Answer

This falls in the peak window for delirium tremens (typically 48-72 hours post-last-drink); first-line treatment is a benzodiazepine such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam.

Question 39

A patient has a painful red eye, halos around lights, and a fixed, mid-dilated pupil. What is the diagnosis and why is it an emergency?

Accepted Answer

Acute angle-closure glaucoma - untreated, rapidly rising intraocular pressure can cause permanent optic nerve damage and vision loss within hours.

Question 40

When antibiotics are indicated for acute otitis media, what is first-line?

Accepted Answer

Amoxicillin - many uncomplicated cases in children over 2 resolve without antibiotics, so watchful waiting is often appropriate first.

Question 41

What is the first-line treatment for scabies, and who else needs treating?

Accepted Answer

Permethrin 5% cream applied to the whole body - all household and close contacts must be treated simultaneously, even if asymptomatic, to prevent reinfestation.

Question 42

What ABCDE features should raise concern for melanoma in a pigmented skin lesion?

Accepted Answer

Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, Diameter greater than 6mm, and Evolution (change in size, shape, or colour over time).

Question 43

What does the biopsychosocial model add to purely biomedical patient assessment?

Accepted Answer

It requires considering psychological factors (mood, beliefs, coping) and social factors (family, work, environment) alongside biological disease, not disease alone.

Question 44

What are the 5 A's for a brief smoking-cessation intervention in primary care?

Accepted Answer

Ask about tobacco use, Advise to quit, Assess readiness to quit, Assist with a quit plan, Arrange follow-up.

Question 45

What distinguishes primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention?

Accepted Answer

Primary prevents disease before it starts (e.g., immunisation). Secondary detects disease early via screening in asymptomatic people. Tertiary reduces complications and disability in patients who already have disease.

Question 46

How often should average-risk women undergo cervical cancer screening?

Accepted Answer

Roughly every 3-5 years depending on age and whether cytology alone or HPV co-testing is used - more frequent screening is not recommended for average-risk women.

Question 47

What is the difference between a test's sensitivity and its specificity?

Accepted Answer

Sensitivity is the proportion of true positives correctly identified (a highly sensitive test, when negative, helps rule OUT disease - 'SnNOUT'). Specificity is the proportion of true negatives correctly identified (a highly specific test, when positive, helps rule IN disease - 'SpPIN').

Question 48

What does 'number needed to treat' (NNT) tell you?

Accepted Answer

The number of patients who must receive a treatment for one additional patient to benefit, compared with the control - a lower NNT means a more effective treatment.

Question 49

Under what circumstance can you break patient confidentiality without consent?

Accepted Answer

When there is a risk of serious harm to the patient or to others (e.g., safeguarding concerns, notifiable communicable disease, court order) - confidentiality is not absolute in these situations.

Question 50

If you make a medical error that harms a patient, what professional duty applies?

Accepted Answer

The duty of candour - you must disclose the error to the patient promptly, honestly, and with an apology, rather than concealing it.

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