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100+ Free DHCA Doctor Exam Practice Questions
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A 70-year-old woman presents after a fall with a shortened, externally rotated right leg and groin pain, unable to weight-bear. What is the most appropriate initial imaging?
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Sample DHCA Doctor Exam Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your DHCA Doctor Exam exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents for a DHCC primary care visit. His clinic blood pressure on two separate occasions averages 150/92 mmHg. According to current primary-care management of hypertension in a diabetic patient, which is the most appropriate first-line antihypertensive?
A.A beta-blocker (e.g., atenolol)
B.An ACE inhibitor (e.g., lisinopril)
C.An alpha-blocker (e.g., doxazosin)
D.A loop diuretic (e.g., furosemide)
Explanation: In a patient with diabetes and hypertension, an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) is first-line because it provides reno-protection by reducing intraglomerular pressure and slowing progression of diabetic nephropathy, in addition to lowering blood pressure.
2A 28-year-old woman presents with a 3-week history of weight loss, heat intolerance, palpitations, and a fine tremor. Examination reveals a smooth diffuse goitre and lid lag. Which single investigation is most useful as the initial confirmatory test?
A.Radioactive iodine uptake scan
B.Thyroid ultrasound
C.Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
D.Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Explanation: A suppressed serum TSH is the most sensitive initial screening and confirmatory test for hyperthyroidism. In Graves disease, TSH is low and free T4/T3 are elevated, and the clinical picture of a diffuse goitre with lid lag supports the diagnosis.
3A 62-year-old smoker presents to a DHCC clinic with central crushing chest pain for 40 minutes, radiating to the left arm and associated with sweating. ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which artery is most likely occluded?
A.Left anterior descending artery
B.Left main stem artery
C.Left circumflex artery
D.Right coronary artery
Explanation: ST elevation in the inferior leads II, III, and aVF indicates an inferior STEMI, which most commonly results from occlusion of the right coronary artery, the dominant supply to the inferior wall in most individuals.
4A 35-year-old man presents with acute severe asthma. He is too breathless to complete sentences, with a respiratory rate of 30, oxygen saturation 91% on air, and a peak flow 40% of predicted. What is the most appropriate immediate first step?
A.High-flow oxygen plus nebulised salbutamol
B.Oral prednisolone alone
C.Intravenous aminophylline as first-line
D.Chest physiotherapy
Explanation: In acute severe asthma, the priority is to correct hypoxaemia with controlled high-flow oxygen and to deliver a beta-2 agonist bronchodilator (nebulised salbutamol). Systemic corticosteroids are added but bronchodilation and oxygenation come first.
5A 45-year-old woman presents with epigastric pain relieved by food and worse at night. Urea breath test is positive. Which regimen is the recommended first-line eradication therapy for Helicobacter pylori in a penicillin-tolerant patient?
A.Metronidazole monotherapy
B.A proton pump inhibitor alone for 8 weeks
C.A proton pump inhibitor plus amoxicillin plus clarithromycin
D.An H2-receptor antagonist plus sucralfate
Explanation: First-line triple therapy for H. pylori eradication combines a proton pump inhibitor with two antibiotics, typically amoxicillin and clarithromycin, for 7-14 days. This achieves high eradication rates and heals the associated peptic ulcer disease.
6A 70-year-old man on a primary-care review is found to have a serum potassium of 6.8 mmol/L. His ECG shows tall tented T waves and broadening of the QRS complex. Which is the most appropriate immediate treatment to protect the myocardium?
A.Oral calcium resonium
B.Intravenous calcium gluconate
C.Intravenous insulin and dextrose only
D.Nebulised salbutamol only
Explanation: In hyperkalaemia with ECG changes, intravenous calcium gluconate is given first because it stabilises the cardiac membrane and reduces the risk of fatal arrhythmia, although it does not lower the potassium level itself.
7A 30-year-old woman with a history of migraine presents requesting contraception. She reports migraine with aura. Which contraceptive method is contraindicated?
A.Progestogen-only implant
B.Progestogen-only pill
C.Copper intrauterine device
D.Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation: Migraine with aura is a contraindication (UKMEC/WHO category 4) to the combined oral contraceptive pill because the oestrogen component increases the risk of ischaemic stroke in these patients. Progestogen-only and non-hormonal methods are safe alternatives.
8A 26-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks gestation presents with headache, visual disturbance, and blood pressure of 165/110 mmHg. Urine dipstick shows 3+ protein. What is the most appropriate first-line drug to control her blood pressure acutely?
A.Labetalol
B.Ramipril
C.Atenolol
D.Sodium nitroprusside
Explanation: This is severe pre-eclampsia. Labetalol (IV or oral) is a first-line agent for acute blood pressure control in pregnancy because it is effective and safe for the fetus. Nifedipine and hydralazine are alternative first-line options.
9A 3-year-old boy is brought to a DHCC clinic with a barking cough, hoarse voice, and inspiratory stridor that worsens when he is upset. He is afebrile and well-perfused. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Acute epiglottitis
B.Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)
C.Bacterial tracheitis
D.Foreign body aspiration
Explanation: A barking (seal-like) cough, hoarseness, and inspiratory stridor in a young child point to croup, usually caused by parainfluenza virus. Mild cases respond to a single dose of oral dexamethasone.
10A 6-month-old infant presents with poor feeding, fever, and a bulging fontanelle. Lumbar puncture shows a high neutrophil count, low glucose, and high protein. Which is the most appropriate empirical antibiotic while awaiting culture?
A.Oral amoxicillin
B.Oral co-amoxiclav
C.Intravenous ceftriaxone (or cefotaxime)
D.Intravenous vancomycin alone
Explanation: These findings indicate bacterial meningitis. A third-generation cephalosporin such as IV ceftriaxone or cefotaxime is the empirical treatment of choice because it covers the common pathogens including Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis and penetrates the CSF.
About the DHCA Doctor Exam Practice Questions
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