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Free Practice Questions for OMSB Diagnostic Radiology (OEDR)

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Key Facts: OMSB Diagnostic Radiology (OEDR) Exam

100 MCQs

Single-best-answer questions on the OEDR

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1F5eZ5uddWnp5TQrVvV-lZ5lkroI_V2I5/view

2 h 30 min

Examination duration

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1F5eZ5uddWnp5TQrVvV-lZ5lkroI_V2I5/view

65%

Passing score

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1F5eZ5uddWnp5TQrVvV-lZ5lkroI_V2I5/view

USD 220

Examination fee

https://omsb.gov.om/home/infoPage?id=53

12 domains

Blueprint domains led by GI (14%), GU (11%), MSK (11%), and Neuro (11%)

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1F5eZ5uddWnp5TQrVvV-lZ5lkroI_V2I5/view

The OEDR features 100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes, costs USD 220, and requires 65% to pass (OMSB booklet, August 2025). It covers 12 core domains led by Gastrointestinal (14%), Genitourinary (11%), Musculoskeletal (11%), and Neuroradiology (11%). These 100 independent practice questions reflect the published blueprint distribution, question formats, and reference standards.

Sample OMSB Diagnostic Radiology (OEDR) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the OMSB Diagnostic Radiology (OEDR) exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 34-year-old woman undergoes abdominal MRI for an incidental liver lesion found on ultrasound. The lesion is mildly hypointense to isointense on T1-weighted images, slightly hyperintense on T2-weighted images, and exhibits a T2-hyperintense central scar. Following intravenous administration of gadoxetate disodium (hepatobiliary agent), the lesion demonstrates intense arterial enhancement and remains hyperintense to liver parenchyma on 20-minute hepatobiliary phase images. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Hepatic adenoma
B.Focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH)
C.Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma
D.Atypical cavernous hemangioma
Explanation: Focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH) is a benign hyperplastic response to a pre-existing vascular malformation. It contains functioning hepatocytes and abnormal biliary ductules that do not communicate with the biliary tree. Because functioning hepatocytes and preserved organic anion transporting polypeptides (OATP8/1B1/1B3) are present, FNH characteristically retains hepatobiliary contrast agents on 20-minute delayed hepatobiliary phase imaging, remaining iso- to hyperintense. The central scar is typically T2-hyperintense due to vascular channels and myxoid tissue.
2What is the classic enhancement pattern of a typical hepatic cavernous hemangioma on multiphasic contrast-enhanced CT?
A.Immediate homogeneous arterial hyperenhancement with rapid portal venous washout and pseudo-capsule
B.Persistent central hypoenhancement with non-enhancing fibrous septations and capsular retraction
C.Peripheral nodular discontinuous arterial enhancement with centripetal fill-in
D.Peripheral rim enhancement in the arterial phase that washes out rapidly to become hypoattenuating
Explanation: The hallmark hemodynamic feature of a cavernous hemangioma on multiphasic CT or MRI is peripheral, nodular, discontinuous enhancement during the early arterial phase, with attenuation matching the blood pool (aorta). In subsequent portal venous and delayed phases, there is progressive centripetal (inward) fill-in that remains iso-attenuating to the blood pool.
3According to the Liver Imaging Reporting and Data System (LI-RADS v2018), which combination of imaging features definitively categorizes a 2.5 cm observation in a cirrhotic patient as LR-5 (definitely hepatocellular carcinoma) on multiphasic contrast-enhanced CT?
A.Non-rim APHE with non-peripheral washout appearance
B.Rim arterial phase hyperenhancement and marked delayed capsular retraction
C.Iso-enhancement on the arterial phase with hyperattenuation on 5-minute delayed phase images
D.Diffusion restriction with T2 hyperintensity in the absence of arterial phase hyperenhancement
Explanation: Under LI-RADS v2018, an observation measuring 20 mm or greater in an at-risk cirrhotic patient that exhibits non-rim arterial phase hyperenhancement (APHE) along with at least one additional major feature—such as non-peripheral 'washout' appearance, enhancing capsule, or threshold growth (≥50% increase in diameter within 6 months)—meets definitive criteria for LR-5 (definitely HCC).
4A 52-year-old man presents with severe retrosternal and epigastric pain following forceful retching after a large meal. Spontaneous esophageal perforation (Boerhaave syndrome) is clinically suspected. What is the most appropriate initial fluoroscopic contrast agent and diagnostic strategy?
A.High-density barium sulfate suspension as the sole agent because of superior mucosal coating
B.Hypotonic air-contrast oral mixture with effervescent granules alone
C.Intravenous contrast without oral contrast under fluoroscopy
D.Water-soluble contrast first, then thin barium if no leak is seen
Explanation: When an acute esophageal perforation or leak is suspected, the first fluoroscopic study uses a water-soluble iodinated contrast agent. Barium is avoided initially because barium in the mediastinum or pleural space causes severe granulomatous mediastinitis and pleuritis. Low-osmolar agents such as iohexol are preferred when aspiration is a risk, because aspirated high-osmolar diatrizoate (Gastrografin) can cause chemical pneumonitis and pulmonary edema. Water-soluble agents give less mucosal detail and miss about 15-20% of small leaks, so if no leak is seen, thin barium is given immediately afterward to exclude a subtle perforation. CT with oral contrast is a common alternative.
5A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids. A barium swallow reveals marked dilation of the thoracic esophagus with retained food residue, absent primary peristaltic waves, and smooth, symmetric conical tapering at the gastroesophageal junction. What is the classic name of this fluoroscopic sign?
A.Corkscrew esophagus
B.Bird's-beak sign
C.String sign of Kantor
D.Apple-core sign
Explanation: The 'bird's-beak' (or 'rat-tail') sign is the classic fluoroscopic appearance of primary achalasia on a barium esophagram. It is caused by incomplete or absent relaxation of the hypertonic lower esophageal sphincter (LES) combined with aperistalsis and subsequent chronic dilatation of the proximal esophageal body.
6A 60-year-old man undergoes abdominal CT for vague abdominal discomfort, which demonstrates an 8 cm well-circumscribed, exophytic, hypervascular mass arising from the gastric fundus with internal central cystic degeneration and necrosis, without regional lymphadenopathy. Immunohistochemistry confirms CD117 (c-KIT) positivity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Gastric adenocarcinoma
B.Gastric lymphoma (MALToma)
C.Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)
D.Gastric leiomyoma
Explanation: Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs) are the most common mesenchymal neoplasms of the GI tract and most often arise in the stomach (60-70%). On CT, larger GISTs typically appear as well-circumscribed, exophytic, hypervascular subepithelial masses with central necrosis, ulceration or cystic change. Prominent lymphadenopathy is characteristically absent, because GISTs spread hematogenously and peritoneally rather than via lymphatics. CD117 (c-KIT) expression, found in about 95% of GISTs, together with DOG1 supports the diagnosis.
7A 68-year-old woman with a prior hysterectomy presents with acute severe crampy abdominal pain and vomiting. Contrast-enhanced CT reveals a C-shaped loop of fluid-distended small bowel with converging mesenteric vessels directed toward a single focal point, along with engorgement of local mesenteric veins ('whirl sign'). The involved bowel wall shows hypoenhancement and wall thickening. What specific pathologic entity is demonstrated?
A.Closed-loop small bowel obstruction with impending strangulation
B.Simple adhesive small bowel obstruction
C.Gallstone ileus with secondary duodenal obstruction
D.Mesenteric venous thrombosis without obstruction
Explanation: A closed-loop obstruction occurs when a segment of bowel is occluded at two adjacent points along its course (often by a single adhesive band or internal hernia). Classic CT signs include a U-shaped or C-shaped fluid-distended bowel loop, radial convergence of stretched mesenteric vessels toward the site of twisting/entrapment (the 'beak' or 'whirl' sign), and high intraluminal pressure that quickly impairs venous and arterial flow, manifesting as bowel wall hypoenhancement and impending ischemia/strangulation.
8Which set of findings on CT or MR enterography is most characteristic of active inflammatory Crohn's disease rather than chronic quiescent fibrostenotic disease?
A.Mural thinning, extensive mucosal atrophy, and absence of mesenteric vascularity
B.Uniform submucosal fat deposition with homogeneous non-enhancing stricture
C.Pencil-thin luminal caliber with diffuse sacculations on the antimesenteric border alone
D.Transmural thickening, mural hyperenhancement, and the comb sign
Explanation: Active inflammatory Crohn's disease is characterized on CT or MR enterography by segmental transmural mural thickening (>3 mm), bilaminar or trilaminar ('target' or 'halo') hyperenhancement during the enteric phase, mucosal ulcerations, perienteric edema, and hypervascular engorgement of the vasa recta on the mesenteric border known as the 'comb sign'. In contrast, chronic quiescent disease shows homogeneous low enhancement, fixed strictures, and submucosal fat deposition (fat halo sign) without vascular engorgement.
9A 58-year-old man presents with left lower quadrant pain and leukocytosis. Abdominal CT demonstrates sigmoid diverticula, marked sigmoid wall thickening with fat stranding, and a well-defined 4.5 cm fluid collection containing gas and rim enhancement located within the pelvis, distant from the inflamed sigmoid colon. According to the modified Hinchey classification, which grade corresponds to this presentation?
A.Hinchey stage Ib
B.Hinchey stage II
C.Hinchey stage III
D.Hinchey stage IV
Explanation: Under the modified Hinchey classification: Stage 0 is mild clinical diverticulitis; Stage Ia is confined pericolic inflammation or phlegmon; Stage Ib is confined pericolic abscess (<5 cm or adjacent to colon); Stage II is a distant retroperitoneal or pelvic abscess resulting from walled-off perforation; Stage III is generalized purulent peritonitis; and Stage IV is generalized feculent peritonitis from free rupture.
10An 82-year-old man with atrial fibrillation develops sudden excruciating abdominal pain out of proportion to physical findings. Contrast-enhanced CT reveals severe, non-enhancing, 'paper-thin' small bowel wall, branch-like branching gas in the nondependent intrahepatic portal veins, and linear gas within the bowel wall. What is the primary diagnosis and its clinical implication?
A.Erosive gastritis with benign pneumoperitoneum requiring conservative observation
B.Severe ulcerative colitis with toxic megacolon requiring emergent total colectomy
C.Acute mesenteric ischemia with transmural infarction
D.Pseudomembranous colitis with accordion sign requiring oral vancomycin
Explanation: The clinical scenario of severe pain out of proportion to examination in an elderly patient with atrial fibrillation is classic for acute superior mesenteric artery (SMA) thromboembolism. On CT, non-enhancing, paper-thin bowel wall indicates loss of perfusion, while pneumatosis intestinalis and branching portomesenteric venous gas (characteristically extending to the liver periphery) signify advanced transmural bowel necrosis and infarction requiring emergent surgical laparotomy.

About the OMSB Diagnostic Radiology (OEDR) Exam

The Omani Examination for Diagnostic Radiology (OEDR) is the Oman Medical Specialty Board occupational classification examination conducted for diagnostic radiology candidates applying for jobs in local healthcare institutions in Oman. Delivered as a computer-based single-best-answer MCQ examination in English at the OMSB National Test Center and Pearson VUE test centres worldwide, it verifies readiness for safe independent radiology practice. This free question bank provides independent practice across all 12 published blueprint domains; it is not an official OMSB resource.

Exam sponsor: Oman Medical Specialty Board (OMSB), Occupational Classification Testing Section. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes across 12 domains: Gastrointestinal 14%; Genitourinary 11%; Musculoskeletal 11%; Neuroradiology 11%; Pediatric 9%; Physics 8%; Thoracic 8%; Breast 6%; Interventional 6%; Nuclear Medicine 6%; Non-Interpretive Skills 6%; and Cardiac 4% (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).

Time Limit

2 hours 30 minutes

Passing Score

65%

Exam / Certification Fees

USD 220

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

14%

Gastrointestinal (GI)

Esophageal motility and neoplasia, gastric tumors, small bowel obstruction and ischemia, inflammatory bowel disease, colorectal cancer and polyps, focal and diffuse liver disease, cirrhosis and portal hypertension, pancreatitis and pancreatic neoplasms, biliary pathology, and acute abdominal imaging.

11%

Genitourinary (GU)

Renal masses (Bosniak classification, RCC subtypes), obstructive uropathy and stone disease, urothelial neoplasms, bladder trauma, adrenal adenoma versus metastasis, testicular lesions and scrotal emergencies, uterine pathology (fibroids, adenomyosis, malignancy), and ovarian masses.

11%

Musculoskeletal (MSK)

Acute osseous and chondral trauma, joint dislocation patterns, internal derangement of the shoulder and knee, benign and malignant bone and soft tissue tumors, osteomyelitis and septic arthritis, spondyloarthropathies, and crystal-induced arthritis.

11%

Neuroradiology

Acute ischemic stroke imaging, intracranial hemorrhage, intracranial neoplasms (intra-axial and extra-axial), head trauma, demyelinating disease, CNS infections, spinal cord lesions, degenerative spine disease, and skull base and neck spaces.

9%

Pediatric

Neonatal respiratory distress, hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, malrotation and volvulus, intussusception, pediatric renal masses (Wilms vs neuroblastoma), non-accidental trauma, developmental dysplasia of the hip, and neonatal hypoxic-ischemic injury.

8%

Physics

X-ray tube physics and spectrum, fluoroscopy dose reduction, CT acquisition and iterative reconstruction, MRI pulse sequences (T1, T2, FLAIR, DWI), artifacts and safety, ultrasound beam formation and Doppler physics, radiation biology, and ALARA principles.

8%

Thoracic

Solitary pulmonary nodule management (Fleischner Society criteria), lung cancer staging, infectious and opportunistic pneumonias, interstitial lung diseases (UIP vs NSIP patterns), acute pulmonary embolism, pleural diseases, and mediastinal compartment masses.

6%

Breast

Mammographic screening, architectural distortion and microcalcifications, BI-RADS lexicon and assessment categories, breast ultrasound features, indications for breast MRI, and image-guided localization and biopsy.

6%

Interventional

Vascular access techniques, acute GI bleeding management and embolization, transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS), deep vein thrombosis and IVC filter placement, image-guided biopsy, percutaneous abscess drainage, and complications management.

6%

Nuclear Medicine

Principles of SPECT and PET/CT imaging, FDG oncology imaging patterns and pitfalls, bone scintigraphy in metastatic disease, thyroid uptake and scintigraphy, V/Q scan interpretation for pulmonary embolism, and radiopharmaceutical safety.

6%

Non-Interpretive Skills

Patient safety protocols, adverse reaction prophylaxis and management for iodinated and gadolinium contrast media, radiation dose optimization and diagnostic reference levels, informed consent, peer review, and communication of critical imaging findings.

4%

Cardiac

Coronary artery calcium scoring, coronary CT angiography interpretation and CAD-RADS, cardiac MRI tissue characterization (late gadolinium enhancement patterns for ischemic vs non-ischemic cardiomyopathy), and pericardial disease.

Preparing for the OMSB Diagnostic Radiology (OEDR) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 65%
  • Assessment: 100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes across 12 domains: Gastrointestinal 14%; Genitourinary 11%; Musculoskeletal 11%; Neuroradiology 11%; Pediatric 9%; Physics 8%; Thoracic 8%; Breast 6%; Interventional 6%; Nuclear Medicine 6%; Non-Interpretive Skills 6%; and Cardiac 4% (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).
  • Time limit: 2 hours 30 minutes
  • Exam / certification fees: USD 220 Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

OMSB Diagnostic Radiology (OEDR): Suggested Study Strategy

1Prioritize high-yield core subspecialties: Gastrointestinal (14%), Genitourinary (11%), Musculoskeletal (11%), and Neuroradiology (11%) together comprise nearly half (47%) of the examination.
2Thoroughly review imaging physics (8%) and non-interpretive skills (6%) using Bushberg's Essential Physics and ACR guidelines; these sections offer reliable scoring opportunities on contrast reactions, radiation safety, and MRI physics.
3Master classic imaging signs and multi-modality findings across ultrasound, CT, MRI, fluoroscopy, and conventional radiography from Grainger & Allison and Brant & Helms.
4Practice timed single-best-answer questions to ensure you complete all 100 questions within the 150-minute examination limit (an average pace of 90 seconds per question).

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the official name of the OMSB diagnostic radiology examination?

OMSB officially titles it the Omani Examination for Diagnostic Radiology (OEDR). It is an occupational classification examination conducted for diagnostic radiology candidates seeking healthcare employment in the Sultanate of Oman.

How many questions are on the OEDR, and what is the test format?

The examination consists of 100 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions (MCQs) in English, with a duration of 2 hours and 30 minutes, administered as a computer-based test (CBT).

What are the passing score and examination fee?

The passing score is 65% and the examination fee is USD 220, paid upon booking via Pearson VUE. Candidates receive official results by email within 24 hours of test completion.

Where can candidates sit the OEDR exam?

Candidates residing within Oman take the exam at the OMSB National Test Center located in Innovation Park Muscat. Candidates outside Oman can book and take the exam at authorized Pearson VUE testing centres globally.

What are the key references recommended for the OEDR?

The OMSB syllabus recommends core diagnostic radiology textbooks including Grainger & Allison's Diagnostic Radiology, Brant & Helms' Fundamentals of Diagnostic Radiology, and Bushberg's Essential Physics of Medical Imaging.

Is this practice question bank an official OMSB resource?

No. This question bank consists of independent practice questions created by OpenExamPrep based on the published OMSB OEDR blueprint. It is not affiliated with, sponsored by, or endorsed by OMSB.