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Free Practice Questions for OMSB Pediatrics (OEPEDS)

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Key Facts: OMSB Pediatrics (OEPEDS) Exam

100 MCQs

Single-best-answer questions on the OEPEDS

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1LWVZJ4ZZlUTmCzsvdCn-OnNVmbKd-mR6/view

2 h 30 min

Examination time

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1LWVZJ4ZZlUTmCzsvdCn-OnNVmbKd-mR6/view

65%

Passing score

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1LWVZJ4ZZlUTmCzsvdCn-OnNVmbKd-mR6/view

USD 220

Examination fee

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1LWVZJ4ZZlUTmCzsvdCn-OnNVmbKd-mR6/view

19 domains

Blueprint domains led by general care, neonatology, and critical care

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1LWVZJ4ZZlUTmCzsvdCn-OnNVmbKd-mR6/view

The OEPEDS features 100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes, costs USD 220 on Pearson VUE, and requires 65% to pass (OMSB booklet, August 2025). The exam covers 19 clinical domains led by general and preventive care (25%), neonatology (13%), emergency and critical care (12%), and various pediatric organ-system subspecialties.

Sample OMSB Pediatrics (OEPEDS) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the OMSB Pediatrics (OEPEDS) exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A healthy term newborn male weighing 3,400 g is born via uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery to a mother whose hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) test result was documented as negative during prenatal screening. According to the WHO recommendation and the Oman national immunization schedule, what is the most appropriate recommendation regarding hepatitis B vaccination for this infant?
A.Administer the first dose of monovalent hepatitis B vaccine intramuscularly within 24 hours of birth
B.Defer hepatitis B vaccination until 2 months of age when combined pentavalent or hexavalent vaccines are initiated
C.Administer both monovalent hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) within 12 hours of birth
D.Check maternal hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc) titers before administering the first hepatitis B vaccine dose
Explanation: WHO recommends that all newborns receive a monovalent hepatitis B vaccine birth dose as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours of birth, and the Oman national schedule gives hepatitis B vaccine at birth. The birth dose protects against perinatal and early horizontal transmission, including from false-negative or unrecorded maternal results, and starts the primary series, which continues with hexavalent vaccine from 2 months. It is given even when the mother's documented HBsAg test is negative.
2A 2-week-old full-term infant is brought to the outpatient clinic for a routine well-child check. The infant is exclusively breastfed, feeds every 2 to 3 hours, produces 6 to 8 wet diapers daily, and has regained birth weight. What nutritional supplementation should be initiated at this visit?
A.Elemental iron supplementation at 2 mg/kg/day
B.Oral vitamin D3 supplementation at 400 IU/day
C.Daily multivitamin with zinc and copper
D.Oral fluoride drops at 0.25 mg/day
Explanation: Human milk provides optimal infant nutrition but contains inadequate concentrations of vitamin D (typically less than 25 to 50 IU/L). To prevent nutritional rickets and vitamin D deficiency, guidelines universally recommend that exclusively and partially breastfed infants receive oral vitamin D supplementation of 400 IU (10 micrograms) daily starting in the first few days of life and continuing until weaned to at least 1 liter per day of vitamin D-fortified formula or milk.
3During a routine developmental surveillance examination of a 6-month-old infant, which combination of developmental milestones is expected of a typically developing child at this chronological age?
A.Walks holding onto furniture, uses a neat pincer grasp, and speaks two meaningful single words
B.Rolls prone to supine only, grasps a rattle with a palmar grasp, and coos vowel sounds
C.Sits leaning forward on hands, transfers objects, babbles consonant sounds
D.Pulls to stand, waves bye-bye, and responds to simple one-step verbal commands without gestures
Explanation: At 6 months of age, typical developmental milestones include sitting with support or leaning forward on hands (tripod sitting), transferring objects from hand to hand, voluntary palmar grasp release, and polysyllabic babbling with consonants (such as 'ba-ba' or 'da-da'). They also recognize familiar faces and respond to their own name.
4According to the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) and National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI) guidelines for cardiovascular health and risk reduction in children, at what age is universal screening for dyslipidemia recommended for children without known cardiovascular risk factors?
A.At 2 to 3 years of age during the toddler well-child visit
B.At 4 to 6 years of age prior to elementary school entry
C.At 6 to 8 years of age during early childhood surveillance
D.Universal screening once at 9–11 years and again at 17–21 years
Explanation: Universal pediatric lipid screening is recommended once between ages 9 and 11 years (prior to pubertal lipid fluctuations) and repeated once between ages 17 and 21 years. Selective screening is reserved for children aged 2 to 8 years and 12 to 16 years who have identified high-risk factors such as familial hypercholesterolemia, early parental cardiovascular disease, obesity, or diabetes mellitus.
5A premature female infant born at 31 weeks of gestation weighing 1,450 g is discharged from the neonatal intensive care unit at 36 weeks postmenstrual age. She is thriving and exclusively breastfed. Which of the following recommendations regarding iron supplementation is most appropriate for this infant?
A.Initiate elemental iron supplementation at 2 mg/kg/day and continue until 12 months of age
B.Delay iron supplementation until 4 months of corrected age when physiological nadir occurs
C.Supplement with elemental iron at 6 mg/kg/day combined with high-dose vitamin C drops
D.Iron supplementation is not required if the infant is exclusively breastfed and clinically thriving
Explanation: Preterm infants born before 37 weeks have significantly reduced congenital iron stores because the majority of fetal iron transfer occurs during the third trimester. Exclusively breastfed preterm infants should receive enteral iron supplementation at 2 mg/kg/day starting by 1 month of chronological age (or at discharge) and continuing through 12 months of age to prevent iron deficiency anemia and support neurocognitive development.
6A 2-year-old child living in an older urban home built before 1970 undergoes routine blood screening. The capillary blood lead level is reported as 28 mcg/dL. What is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?
A.Initiate emergent intravenous chelation therapy with calcium disodium EDTA
B.Confirm with a venous lead level within 2 weeks and assess the home environment
C.Start oral succimer (DMSA) immediately while awaiting outpatient repeat screening in 3 months
D.Reassure the parents that levels below 45 mcg/dL require no medical or environmental intervention
Explanation: Capillary blood lead screening samples are vulnerable to skin surface contamination. Any elevated capillary lead level (blood lead reference value >= 3.5 mcg/dL) must be confirmed with a venous blood draw. For a capillary value of 28 mcg/dL, venous confirmation is recommended within 1 to 2 weeks, alongside an environmental assessment to identify and mitigate lead sources, nutritional counseling (iron and calcium), and developmental surveillance.
7A mother attends a 9-month well-child examination and notes that her son has erupted both lower central incisors. She asks when she should schedule his first dental evaluation. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) and American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD), what is the correct recommendation?
A.At 3 years of age when the primary dentition is fully erupted
B.At 2 years of age when all primary molars have emerged
C.By 12 months, or within 6 months of the first tooth erupting
D.Only if visual inspection reveals visible plaque, enamel defects, or discoloration
Explanation: Both the AAP and AAPD recommend that establishing a dental home and scheduling the first professional dental visit should occur within 6 months after the eruption of the first primary tooth, or by 12 months of age at the latest. This enables early caries risk assessment, oral hygiene guidance, dietary advice, and timely fluoride varnish application.
8The parents of an 18-month-old boy weighing 12 kg ask during a well-child check whether they can turn his car safety seat to face forward so he can see them better. What is the current standard recommendation regarding rear-facing child passenger safety?
A.He may be turned forward-facing once he reaches 12 months of age and 9 kg
B.He should be switched to a forward-facing seat with a harness once he reaches 18 months of age
C.He must be switched to a belt-positioning booster seat facing forward
D.Keep rear-facing until he reaches the seat's rear-facing height or weight limit
Explanation: Pediatric safety guidelines emphasize that all infants and toddlers should ride in a rear-facing car safety seat as long as possible, until they reach the highest weight or height allowed by the car seat manufacturer. Most convertible seats accommodate rear-facing children up to 40 to 50 pounds (18 to 23 kg), well past 2 to 4 years of age. Rear-facing seats provide superior support to the head, neck, and spine during frontal collisions.
9A pediatrician performs a red reflex (Bruckner) examination on a 3-month-old infant using a direct ophthalmoscope in a dimly lit room. The right eye demonstrates a normal, bright red-orange reflex, but the left pupil exhibits an abnormal white pupillary reflex (leukocoria). What is the most urgent next step in clinical management?
A.Urgent pediatric ophthalmology referral to exclude retinoblastoma
B.Re-evaluate the red reflex in 4 weeks to determine if the pupillary reflex normalizes
C.Prescribe topical tobramycin ophthalmic drops for suspected congenital conjunctival obstruction
D.Order an immediate outpatient electroencephalogram (EEG) to rule out neurocutaneous syndrome
Explanation: Leukocoria (white pupillary reflex) is an alarming clinical finding in an infant that demands urgent evaluation by a pediatric ophthalmologist. Retinoblastoma is the most critical life- and vision-threatening intraocular malignancy to rule out. Other causes include congenital cataract, persistent fetal vasculature, Coats disease, retinopathy of prematurity, and toxocariasis.
10A newborn fails the automated auditory brainstem response (AABR) screening test prior to discharge from the well-baby nursery. According to the Joint Committee on Infant Hearing (JCIH) '1-3-6' benchmark guidelines, by what age must this infant receive a comprehensive diagnostic audiological evaluation?
A.By 1 month of age
B.By 3 months of age
C.By 6 months of age
D.By 12 months of age
Explanation: The JCIH '1-3-6' benchmarks recommend that all newborns undergo hearing screening before 1 month of age; those who fail screening must have a comprehensive diagnostic audiological evaluation before 3 months of age; and infants diagnosed with permanent hearing loss should receive early intervention services before 6 months of age.

About the OMSB Pediatrics (OEPEDS) Exam

The Omani Examination for Pediatrics (OEPEDS) is an occupational classification exam conducted by the Oman Medical Specialty Board for pediatric candidates applying for employment in local healthcare institutions in Oman. It evaluates clinical decision-making, preventive care, neonatal and pediatric resuscitation, diagnostic evaluation, and subspecialty management across 19 core pediatric domains. Delivered in English as a computer-based single-best-answer MCQ examination at the OMSB National Test Center or Pearson VUE test centres worldwide, it is used as an eligibility criterion for employment in Oman. This question bank provides independent OpenExamPrep practice questions for the OEPEDS; it is not affiliated with or endorsed by OMSB.

Exam sponsor: Oman Medical Specialty Board (OMSB), Occupational Classification Testing Section. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes across 19 domains: General and preventive care 25%, Neonatology 13%, Emergency and critical care 12%, Hematology/oncology 4%, Independent competencies 4%, Cardiology 4%, Infectious disease 4%, GI/hepatology 4%, Metabolic 3%, Nephrology 3%, Neurology 3%, Allergy/immunology 3%, Developmental pediatrics and psychiatry 3%, Endocrinology 3%, Surgical subspecialties 3%, Adolescent medicine 3%, Pulmonology 2%, Genetics 2%, and Rheumatology 2% (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).

Time Limit

2 hours 30 minutes

Passing Score

65%

Exam / Certification Fees

USD 220

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

25%

General and Preventive Care

Well-child supervision, routine immunization schedules, normal physical and developmental milestones, infant nutrition and feeding practices, screening guidelines, and common outpatient pediatric conditions.

13%

Neonatology

Neonatal resuscitation, delivery room stabilization, prematurity complications, respiratory distress syndrome, neonatal jaundice, hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy, and neonatal sepsis.

12%

Emergency and Critical Care

Pediatric advanced life support algorithms, acute upper and lower airway obstruction, respiratory failure, septic and hypovolemic shock resuscitation, status epilepticus, and stabilization of poisonings.

4%

Hematology and Oncology

Nutritional and hemolytic anemias, sickle cell disease vaso-occlusive crises, immune thrombocytopenia, hemophilia, acute lymphoblastic leukemia, and neuroblastoma.

4%

Independent Competencies

Pediatric medical ethics, family-centered communication, child protection, medical decision-making, informed consent, and evidence-based clinical reasoning.

4%

Cardiology

Acyanotic and cyanotic congenital heart diseases, acute rheumatic fever, Kawasaki disease, infective endocarditis prophylaxis and management, and supraventricular tachycardia.

4%

Infectious Disease

Childhood exanthems, acute bacterial meningitis, community-acquired pneumonia, urinary tract infections, septic arthritis, and antimicrobial stewardship.

4%

Gastroenterology and Hepatology

Dehydration assessment and oral rehydration, celiac disease, inflammatory bowel disease, neonatal cholestasis and biliary atresia, and acute gastroenteritis.

3%

Metabolic

Newborn screening interpretation, hyperammonemia, organic acidemias, phenylketonuria, galactosemia, and acute metabolic decompensation management.

3%

Nephrology

Steroid-sensitive nephrotic syndrome, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, hemolytic uremic syndrome, pediatric hypertension, and acute kidney injury.

3%

Neurology

Simple and complex febrile seizures, childhood epilepsy syndromes, infantile spasms, bacterial and viral meningitis complications, and neuromuscular weakness.

3%

Allergy and Immunology

Anaphylaxis identification and epinephrine administration, severe cow's milk protein allergy, primary immunodeficiency disorders, and atopic dermatitis.

3%

Developmental Pediatrics and Psychiatry

Autism spectrum disorder early indicators, ADHD diagnosis and management, global developmental delay evaluation, and adolescent depression.

3%

Endocrinology

Congenital hypothyroidism screening and therapy, diabetic ketoacidosis protocol, congenital adrenal hyperplasia crisis, and precocious versus delayed puberty.

3%

Surgical Subspecialties

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, intussusception reduction, acute appendicitis, testicular torsion, and tracheobronchial foreign body aspiration.

3%

Adolescent Medicine

HEADSS psychosocial interview, adolescent confidentiality, eating disorders, dysmenorrhea, and substance use screening.

2%

Pulmonology

Stepwise asthma management, acute asthma exacerbation severity scoring, cystic fibrosis evaluation, and viral bronchiolitis supportive care.

2%

Genetics

Trisomy 21 clinical features and screening, Turner syndrome, fragile X syndrome, and clinical genetic counselling principles.

2%

Rheumatology

Systemic and oligoarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis, Henoch-Schönlein purpura (IgA vasculitis), and Kawasaki disease differential diagnosis.

Preparing for the OMSB Pediatrics (OEPEDS) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 65%
  • Assessment: 100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes across 19 domains: General and preventive care 25%, Neonatology 13%, Emergency and critical care 12%, Hematology/oncology 4%, Independent competencies 4%, Cardiology 4%, Infectious disease 4%, GI/hepatology 4%, Metabolic 3%, Nephrology 3%, Neurology 3%, Allergy/immunology 3%, Developmental pediatrics and psychiatry 3%, Endocrinology 3%, Surgical subspecialties 3%, Adolescent medicine 3%, Pulmonology 2%, Genetics 2%, and Rheumatology 2% (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).
  • Time limit: 2 hours 30 minutes
  • Exam / certification fees: USD 220 Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

OMSB Pediatrics (OEPEDS): Suggested Study Strategy

1Prioritize high-yield domains: General and Preventive Care (25%), Neonatology (13%), and Emergency and Critical Care (12%) account for half the entire examination.
2Master pediatric acute care and resuscitation algorithms, including NRP guidelines for neonates and PALS protocols for septic shock, status epilepticus, and respiratory failure.
3Review well-child health maintenance thoroughly: immunization timing, developmental milestones at 2, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, and 24 months, and infant nutritional guidelines.
4Ground your study in the suggested references, primarily Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics and Rudolph's Pediatrics, paying special attention to common pediatric emergencies and metabolic presentations.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the official name of the OMSB pediatrics examination?

OMSB officially designates it as the Omani Examination for Pediatrics (OEPEDS) under its Occupational Classification Testing Section.

How many questions are on the OEPEDS, and what is the testing time?

The examination comprises 100 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions administered over 2 hours and 30 minutes, according to the OMSB pediatrics booklet (August 2025).

What is the passing score and examination fee for OEPEDS?

The passing score is 65%, and the fee is USD 220 paid during booking on Pearson VUE. Candidates receive results by email within 24 hours.

Where can candidates take the OEPEDS?

Candidates residing in Oman sit the examination at the OMSB National Test Center located in Innovation Park Muscat. Candidates outside Oman can take it at any authorized Pearson VUE test centre worldwide.

What reference textbooks are recommended by OMSB for OEPEDS?

The official OMSB examination booklet lists Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics and Rudolph's Pediatrics as primary reference textbooks.

Is this question bank an official OMSB preparation material?

No. This question bank provides independent OpenExamPrep practice questions organized around OMSB's published 19 blueprint domains. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by the Oman Medical Specialty Board.