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Key Facts: OMSB Orthopedic Surgery (OEORTHO) Exam

100 MCQs

Single-best-answer questions on the OEORTHO

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1_7SK8tuTUwzGQCYVVe3zLMw_dyzfBVum/view

2 h 30 min

Examination duration

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1_7SK8tuTUwzGQCYVVe3zLMw_dyzfBVum/view

65%

Passing mark

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1_7SK8tuTUwzGQCYVVe3zLMw_dyzfBVum/view

USD 220

Examination fee

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1_7SK8tuTUwzGQCYVVe3zLMw_dyzfBVum/view

14 domains

Blueprint areas, led by Orthopedic trauma at 25%

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1_7SK8tuTUwzGQCYVVe3zLMw_dyzfBVum/view

The OEORTHO features 100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes, costs USD 220, and requires a 65% score to pass (OMSB booklet, August 2025). It is administered via Pearson VUE worldwide and at the OMSB National Test Center in Muscat. These 100 independent practice questions cover all 14 blueprint areas, led by orthopedic trauma (25%), adult reconstruction (10%), pediatrics (10%), spine (10%), and sports medicine (10%).

Sample OMSB Orthopedic Surgery (OEORTHO) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the OMSB Orthopedic Surgery (OEORTHO) exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 32-year-old construction worker sustains an open tibial shaft fracture following a high-energy fall. Examination reveals extensive periosteal stripping, significant soft-tissue loss, and exposed cortical bone requiring rotational flap coverage, but palpable distal pulses. According to the Gustilo-Anderson classification, what is the appropriate grade?
A.Type II
B.Type IIIB
C.Type IIIA
D.Type IIIC
Explanation: Type IIIB open fractures feature extensive soft-tissue injury with periosteal stripping and bone exposure that cannot be covered by primary closure and require local flap or free-flap transfer. Type IIIA wounds have adequate soft-tissue coverage of the bone despite high energy, whereas Type IIIC involves arterial injury requiring vascular repair regardless of soft-tissue loss.
2A 28-year-old motorcyclist with an isolated closed tibial shaft fracture treated with a cast develops severe, escalating calf pain 10 hours later. On examination, pain is aggravated by passive stretch of the hallux and ankle. His blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. Direct needle measurement of the anterior compartment demonstrates a pressure of 55 mmHg. What is the definitive management?
A.Bivalve the cast and repeat compartment pressure measurement in 4 hours
B.Elevation of the leg above heart level and intravenous mannitol
C.Immediate emergent dual-incision four-compartment fasciotomy of the leg
D.Single-incision anterolateral fasciotomy limited to the anterior compartment
Explanation: The clinical picture demonstrates acute compartment syndrome, corroborated by a delta P (diastolic blood pressure minus compartment pressure) of 25 mmHg (80 - 55 = 25 mmHg), which is below the critical threshold of 30 mmHg. Immediate emergent decompression via dual-incision four-compartment fasciotomy (releasing anterior, lateral, superficial posterior, and deep posterior compartments) is mandatory to prevent irreversible neuromuscular necrosis.
3An active, independent 74-year-old female presents after a ground-level fall with a completely displaced intracapsular femoral neck fracture (Garden IV). She has well-managed hypertension and walks unassisted outdoors. Which surgical intervention is generally recommended for this patient?
A.Total hip arthroplasty (cemented femoral stem)
B.Closed reduction and percutaneous cannulated screw fixation
C.Unipolar hemiarthroplasty
D.Dynamic hip screw with derotation screw
Explanation: For active, independent older adults with a displaced intracapsular femoral neck fracture (Garden III/IV), guidelines (NICE CG124, AAOS 2021) favor total hip arthroplasty. Compared with internal fixation, arthroplasty avoids the high rates of osteonecrosis (up to 30-40%) and nonunion (up to 30%) that cause frequent reoperation. Compared with hemiarthroplasty, THA gives modestly better function and pain scores in active patients (HEALTH trial, 2019), although secondary procedure rates were similar.
4A 25-year-old male arrives in the emergency department following a high-speed collision. He is pale, hypotensive (blood pressure 75/40 mmHg), and tachycardic. Radiographs show a Young-Burgess anteroposterior compression type III (APC-III) pelvic ring disruption with severe symphysis diastasis and bilateral sacroiliac joint disruption. What is the most immediate mechanical resuscitation step in the trauma bay?
A.Immediate transfer to the operating theater for open reduction and internal fixation
B.Application of bilateral distal femoral skeletal traction pins
C.Immediate emergent pelvic angiographic embolization before pelvic stabilization
D.Pelvic circumferential compression device centered on the greater trochanters
Explanation: In an unstable open-book pelvic ring disruption (APC-III) with hemodynamic instability, the first mechanical resuscitation maneuver is applying a commercial pelvic binder or folded bedsheet centered directly over the greater trochanters. This compresses the disrupted pelvis, reduces pelvic volume, promotes tamponade of venous and cancellous bleeding, and stabilizes the pelvic ring.
5During retrograde intramedullary nailing of a distal third comminuted femoral shaft fracture, which anatomic structure is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury if the distal locking screws are directed from anterior to posterior too close to the adductor hiatus?
A.Peroneal nerve
B.Popliteal artery
C.Deep femoral artery
D.Femoral vein at the saphenous opening
Explanation: At the distal femur, the superficial femoral artery transitions into the popliteal artery as it passes through the adductor hiatus close to the posterior cortex of the distal femur. Distal anteroposterior locking screws or over-drilling from anterior to posterior in the distal metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction places the popliteal vessels at immediate risk of laceration or pseudoaneurysm formation.
6A 22-year-old rock climber falls 5 meters, sustaining a Hawkins type III talar neck fracture. Plain radiographs taken 8 weeks postoperatively show subchondral lucency of the talar dome on an AP mortise view (Hawkins sign). What does this finding indicate?
A.Imminent collapse of the talar dome due to early avascular necrosis
B.Severe post-traumatic osteoarthritis of the tibiotalar joint
C.Intact talar blood supply, with viable bone undergoing disuse resorption
D.Infection and septic osteolysis within the subchondral bone
Explanation: Hawkins sign is a radiolucent subchondral band in the talar dome seen 6 to 8 weeks after injury on AP/mortise ankle radiographs. It represents disuse osteopenia resulting from viable circulation washing out mineral from the revascularized bone; therefore, its presence reliably rules out avascular necrosis (AVN) of the talus.
7A 45-year-old male pedestrian is struck by an automobile on the lateral side of his knee. Radiographs reveal a fracture of the lateral tibial plateau featuring both a cleavage split and central articular depression > 6 mm. According to the Schatzker classification, what is this fracture pattern?
A.Schatzker type II
B.Schatzker type I
C.Schatzker type III
D.Schatzker type IV
Explanation: Schatzker type II fractures are characterized by a split combined with depression of the lateral tibial plateau. Schatzker type I is a pure wedge split without depression, type III is pure central articular depression without a split wedge, and type IV involves the medial tibial plateau.
8An 80-year-old woman sustains an intertrochanteric hip fracture. Radiographs show a fracture line running from the medial cortex obliquely distally and laterally through the lateral cortex (reverse obliquity pattern). Why is a standard sliding hip screw (SHS) contraindicated as primary fixation in this pattern?
A.The fracture causes excessive shortening that prevents screw purchase in the femoral head
B.The lateral trochanteric wall is too thick to allow controlled collapse along the barrel
C.The entry portal at the greater trochanter destroys the ascending branch of the lateral circumflex artery
D.The shaft can slide medially along the screw axis, so fixation fails
Explanation: Reverse obliquity intertrochanteric fractures (AO/OTA 31-A3) lack an intact lateral femoral cortex to resist medial displacement. When treated with a sliding hip screw, loading causes the femoral shaft to slide medially along the screw angle rather than impaction of the fracture, leading to catastrophic failure and cutout. A cephalomedullary intramedullary nail provides a rigid intramedullary buttress that resists this medial translation.
9A 36-year-old cyclist sustains high-energy shoulder trauma resulting in a scapula fracture. Which finding represents an established absolute or strong indication for operative open reduction and internal fixation rather than nonoperative sling management?
A.Isolated scapular body fracture with 15 mm translational displacement
B.Isolated acromion process fracture displaced by 3 mm without impingement
C.Glenoid fossa fracture with >4 mm articular step-off and glenohumeral instability
D.Coracoid process tip avulsion fracture with intact coracoclavicular ligaments
Explanation: Operative fixation of scapula fractures is indicated for intra-articular glenoid fractures with > 4 mm of articular step-off or gap, glenoid rim fractures involving > 25% of the articular surface with subluxation, and dual disruptions of the superior shoulder suspensory complex (floating shoulder with gross displacement). Most isolated scapular body and spine fractures heal reliably with nonoperative management.
10A 24-year-old male polytrauma patient with bilateral closed femoral shaft fractures, multiple rib fractures, and pelvic disruption is admitted to the intensive care unit. His core temperature is 34.2°C, arterial blood pH is 7.22, serum lactate is 4.8 mmol/L, and platelet count is 65,000/µL. What is the most appropriate orthopedic stabilization strategy?
A.Definitive reamed bilateral intramedullary femoral nailing and formal open pelvic plating
B.Damage control: temporary external fixation of femurs plus pelvic binder
C.Bedside skin traction and postponement of any stabilization until day 14
D.Unreamed bilateral femoral nailing performed under permissive hypotensive anesthesia
Explanation: The patient is in the lethal triad of trauma: hypothermia (< 35°C), acidosis (pH < 7.24, lactate > 4.0 mmol/L), and coagulopathy (platelets < 70,000/µL). In this 'in extremis' physiological state, definitive early total care (ETC) reamed nailing acts as a severe secondary hit triggering systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multi-organ failure. Damage control orthopedics (DCO) with rapid temporary external fixation minimizes operative time and physiologic stress.

About the OMSB Orthopedic Surgery (OEORTHO) Exam

The Omani Examination for Orthopedics (OEORTHO) is the Oman Medical Specialty Board occupational classification examination conducted for orthopedic surgery candidates applying for employment in local healthcare institutions across Oman. Delivered as a 100-question computer-based MCQ exam in English at the OMSB National Test Center or at Pearson VUE test centres worldwide, the test assesses clinical competency, emergency trauma management, and patient safety. This bank provides independent OpenExamPrep practice questions organized across the 14 blueprint domains; it is not an official OMSB resource.

Exam sponsor: Oman Medical Specialty Board (OMSB), Occupational Classification Testing Section. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes across 14 domains: Orthopedic trauma 25%; Adult reconstruction 10%; Pediatrics 10%; Spine 10%; Sport 10%; Foot and ankle 5%; Hand 5%; Oncology 5%; Upper limb 5%; Orthotics and rehabilitation 3%; Plastic surgery 3%; Research and ethics 3%; Rheumatology 3%; and Vascular 3% (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).

Time Limit

2 hours 30 minutes

Passing Score

65%

Exam / Certification Fees

USD 220

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

25%

Orthopedic trauma

Assessment and operative/nonoperative management of fractures, dislocations, polytrauma resuscitation, open fracture staging, compartment syndrome, pelvic and acetabular injuries, peri-articular fractures, nonunions, and infection complications.

10%

Adult reconstruction

Primary and revision total hip and knee arthroplasty, biomechanics of prosthetic components, osteotomy, avascular necrosis, periprosthetic fractures, bearing surfaces, and prosthetic joint infection.

10%

Pediatrics

Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), Perthes disease, slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE), clubfoot (talipes equinovarus), pediatric fractures and physeal injuries, neuromuscular conditions, and angular limb deformities.

10%

Spine

Degenerative cervical and lumbar disc disease, spinal stenosis, spinal trauma, spinal deformity (scoliosis and kyphosis), cauda equina syndrome, spinal infections (Pott disease), and cord compression.

10%

Sport

Knee ligament and meniscus injuries (ACL, PCL, collateral ligaments), shoulder instability (anterior/posterior, Bankart, SLAP), rotator cuff tears, articular cartilage restoration, and overuse athletic injuries.

5%

Foot and ankle

Hallux valgus, ankle fractures and syndesmotic injuries, Achilles tendon ruptures, posterior tibial tendon dysfunction, Charcot neuroarthropathy, and subtalar/ankle arthritis.

5%

Hand

Distal radius and scaphoid fractures, flexor and extensor tendon lacerations, carpal tunnel syndrome, peripheral nerve injuries, dupuytren contracture, and perilunate dislocations.

5%

Oncology

Benign and malignant bone and soft-tissue tumors (osteosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma, chondrosarcoma, giant cell tumor), metastatic bone disease, pathologic fractures, and staging biopsy principles.

5%

Upper limb

Proximal humerus fractures, clavicle and acromioclavicular injuries, elbow fractures and dislocations, humeral shaft fractures, frozen shoulder, and elbow tendinopathies.

3%

Orthotics and rehabilitation

Splinting, casting techniques, functional bracing, lower and upper limb orthoses, post-injury mobilization protocols, and amputee rehabilitation.

3%

Plastic surgery

Soft-tissue coverage, local and free fasciocutaneous/muscle flaps for open limb injuries, skin grafting, wound bed preparation, and negative pressure wound therapy.

3%

Research and ethics

Evidence-based orthopedics, clinical study designs, statistical significance and power, surgical informed consent, conflict of interest, and medical ethics.

3%

Rheumatology

Rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, crystal arthropathies (gout, pseudogout), seronegative spondyloarthropathies, and perioperative management of biologic agents.

3%

Vascular

Vascular assessment in limb trauma (ABI, CTA), arterial injury in knee dislocation or supracondylar fracture, compartment syndrome perfusion dynamics, and temporary intravascular shunts.

Preparing for the OMSB Orthopedic Surgery (OEORTHO) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 65%
  • Assessment: 100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes across 14 domains: Orthopedic trauma 25%; Adult reconstruction 10%; Pediatrics 10%; Spine 10%; Sport 10%; Foot and ankle 5%; Hand 5%; Oncology 5%; Upper limb 5%; Orthotics and rehabilitation 3%; Plastic surgery 3%; Research and ethics 3%; Rheumatology 3%; and Vascular 3% (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).
  • Time limit: 2 hours 30 minutes
  • Exam / certification fees: USD 220 Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

OMSB Orthopedic Surgery (OEORTHO): Suggested Study Strategy

1Prioritize orthopedic trauma (25%): it is by far the largest domain, requiring mastery of open fracture management (Gustilo-Anderson), compartment syndrome emergency fasciotomy, pelvic ring disruptions, and peri-articular fractures.
2Focus equally on core subspecialties: adult reconstruction, pediatrics, spine, and sports medicine each carry 10% (accounting together for 40% of the exam), emphasizing clinical diagnosis and surgical decision-making.
3Review the smaller surgical and allied domains (hand, foot and ankle, oncology, upper limb at 5% each; plastic surgery, orthotics, vascular, rheumatology, research/ethics at 3% each) which collectively constitute 35% of the score.
4Base preparation on recommended texts from the OMSB booklet, notably Miller's Review of Orthopaedics, Campbell's Operative Orthopaedics, and Apley's System of Orthopaedics and Fractures (Solomon).

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the official name of the OMSB orthopedic surgery exam?

OMSB designates it as the Omani Examination for Orthopedics (OEORTHO). It is conducted as an occupational classification examination for orthopedic surgery candidates seeking employment in Oman's healthcare sector.

How many questions are on the OEORTHO, and how long is the examination?

The examination comprises 100 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions with a time limit of 2 hours 30 minutes, as specified in OMSB's August 2025 booklet.

What is the passing score and examination fee?

The passing score is 65% and the examination fee is USD 220, paid during booking through Pearson VUE. Candidates receive test results by email within 24 hours.

Who is eligible to take the OEORTHO exam?

Specific educational prerequisites are not published in the OMSB examination booklet. Candidates must register with the OMSB Occupational Classification Testing Section prior to booking via Pearson VUE.

Where is the OEORTHO examination conducted?

Candidates residing in Oman take the test at the OMSB National Test Center at Innovation Park Muscat, while international candidates sit the exam at authorized Pearson VUE centres worldwide.

Is this practice question bank an official OMSB resource?

No. This question bank is an independent OpenExamPrep study resource structured around OMSB's published 14-domain blueprint. It is not affiliated with or endorsed by OMSB.