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Free Practice Questions for OMSB General Surgery (OEGS)

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Key Facts: OMSB General Surgery (OEGS) Exam

100 MCQs

Single-best-answer questions on the OEGS

https://drive.google.com/file/d/13-QXX6SwuiPhxOiijryopLMFG3L8pbY3/view

2 h 30 min

Examination duration

https://drive.google.com/file/d/13-QXX6SwuiPhxOiijryopLMFG3L8pbY3/view

65%

Passing standard

https://drive.google.com/file/d/13-QXX6SwuiPhxOiijryopLMFG3L8pbY3/view

USD 220

Examination fee

https://omsb.gov.om/home/infoPage?id=53

20 domains

Blueprint areas specified in August 2025 OMSB booklet

https://drive.google.com/file/d/13-QXX6SwuiPhxOiijryopLMFG3L8pbY3/view

The OEGS consists of 100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes, costs USD 220, and requires a 65% score to pass (OMSB booklet, August 2025). It is administered via Pearson VUE worldwide and at the OMSB National Test Center in Muscat. These 100 independent practice questions cover all 20 blueprint domains, led by breast (10%), hepatobiliary (10%), lower GIT (10%), endocrine (8%), and surgical oncology (8%).

Sample OMSB General Surgery (OEGS) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the OMSB General Surgery (OEGS) exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 52-year-old asymptomatic woman undergoes routine screening mammography, which reveals clustered pleomorphic microcalcifications in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast classified as BI-RADS 4. There are no palpable breast or axillary masses. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A.Follow-up diagnostic mammography in 6 months
B.Stereotactic vacuum-assisted core needle biopsy
C.Immediate wide local excision with wire localization
D.Fine-needle aspiration cytology under ultrasound guidance
Explanation: BI-RADS 4 lesions carry a suspicion of malignancy (ranging from 2% to 95%) and warrant tissue diagnosis. Stereotactic core needle biopsy is the procedure of choice for non-palpable microcalcifications without an ultrasound correlate because it provides sufficient histological architecture to distinguish in situ from invasive carcinoma while avoiding unnecessary diagnostic surgical excision.
2A 46-year-old woman is diagnosed with a 1.8 cm invasive ductal carcinoma (cT1c) of the left breast. Clinical and axillary ultrasonographic examinations show no suspicious axillary lymph nodes (cN0). The patient elects to undergo breast-conserving surgery (partial mastectomy). What is the standard surgical staging procedure for the axilla in this patient?
A.Complete level I-III axillary lymph node dissection
B.Four-node axillary sampling without tracer injection
C.Sentinel lymph node biopsy using radioisotope and/or blue dye
D.Axillary observation without lymph node biopsy
Explanation: Sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB) using radiotracer (technetium-99m sulfur colloid) and/or isosulfan/patent blue dye (or indocyanine green) is the standard of care for axillary staging in early-stage breast cancer (cT1-2N0). SLNB provides accurate staging with significantly lower morbidity (lymphedema, seroma, sensory loss) compared to routine complete axillary lymph node dissection.
3A 65-year-old postmenopausal woman undergoes lumpectomy for a 2.2 cm invasive ductal carcinoma of the right breast. The final pathology report reveals invasive carcinoma with ink present on tumor cells at the superior margin ('positive margin'). All other margins are greater than 2 mm clear. What is the recommended next step in local management?
A.Re-excision of the superior surgical margin
B.Completion total mastectomy with reconstruction
C.Adjuvant whole-breast radiation therapy without re-excision
D.Administration of systemic chemotherapy before any further local therapy
Explanation: According to SSO-ASTRO consensus guidelines, the standard definition of an adequate margin for invasive breast cancer treated with breast-conserving surgery and whole-breast radiation is 'no ink on tumor'. Because ink touches tumor cells at the superior margin, a cavity shave re-excision of the affected superior margin is required to minimize local recurrence risk while preserving the remaining breast.
4A 38-year-old premenopausal woman with high-risk, node-positive, estrogen receptor-positive (ER+), HER2-negative breast cancer completes adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation therapy following lumpectomy. Based on the SOFT and TEXT clinical trials, which adjuvant endocrine therapy strategy confers the greatest disease-free survival benefit in this high-risk premenopausal patient?
A.Tamoxifen monotherapy for 5 years
B.An aromatase inhibitor (exemestane) monotherapy for 5 years
C.Bilateral prophylactic oophorectomy alone without pharmacotherapy
D.Ovarian suppression plus an aromatase inhibitor
Explanation: The SOFT and TEXT trials demonstrated that in premenopausal women with high-risk hormone receptor-positive breast cancer (especially those requiring adjuvant chemotherapy), ovarian function suppression (OFS via GnRH agonists, surgical oophorectomy, or ovarian irradiation) combined with an aromatase inhibitor (exemestane) provides significantly higher disease-free and distant recurrence-free survival compared to tamoxifen alone.
5A 42-year-old woman presents with diffuse, rapid-onset erythema, edema, and peau d'orange appearance involving more than one-third of her left breast, accompanied by tender axillary adenopathy. A core needle biopsy of the breast and skin punch biopsy confirm invasive ductal carcinoma with dermal lymphatic tumor emboli, establishing the diagnosis of inflammatory breast cancer (T4d). What is the appropriate initial management strategy?
A.Immediate modified radical mastectomy followed by adjuvant chemotherapy
B.Neoadjuvant chemotherapy, then modified radical mastectomy and radiotherapy
C.Primary radiation therapy followed by lumpectomy and axillary dissection
D.Immediate total mastectomy with immediate autologous tissue reconstruction
Explanation: Inflammatory breast cancer (T4d) is a locally advanced, highly aggressive disease. Standard multimodal treatment mandates neoadjuvant systemic anthracycline/taxane-based chemotherapy (plus HER2-targeted therapy if applicable) as the initial step to induce clinical response, followed by non-skin-sparing modified radical mastectomy, and completed by adjuvant post-mastectomy radiation therapy. Immediate surgery is contraindicated due to high positive margin and local recurrence rates.
6A 24-year-old woman presents with a painless, highly mobile, rubbery breast lump in her right upper outer quadrant measuring 2 cm. Ultrasound demonstrates a well-circumscribed, oval, hypoechoic mass that is wider than tall, with uniform internal echoes and no posterior acoustic shadowing. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Fibroadenoma
B.Invasive ductal carcinoma
C.Fat necrosis
D.Mammary duct ectasia
Explanation: Fibroadenoma is the most common benign breast mass in young women under 30. Its classic physical exam findings (smooth, rubbery, painless, highly mobile mass) and sonographic features (well-circumscribed oval hypoechoic mass oriented parallel to the skin surface, i.e., wider than tall) are pathognomonic for a BI-RADS 2 or 3 benign lesion.
7A 55-year-old woman presents with spontaneous, unilateral, bloody nipple discharge from a single duct orifice of the right breast. Clinical breast examination and bilateral mammography are normal. What is the most common underlying pathological etiology for this presentation?
A.Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
B.Fibrocystic breast disease
C.Solitary intraductal papilloma
D.Periductal mastitis
Explanation: Solitary intraductal papilloma is the most common cause of spontaneous, unilateral, single-duct bloody or serosanguinous nipple discharge, accounting for approximately 50-70% of cases. Although benign, it requires surgical excision (microdochectomy or terminal duct excision) to confirm pathology and exclude associated atypia or intraductal carcinoma.
8A 62-year-old woman with a 2.1 cm invasive ductal carcinoma (T2N0) undergoes partial mastectomy and sentinel lymph node biopsy. Final pathology confirms negative surgical margins and reveals metastases in 2 out of 3 sentinel lymph nodes without gross extranodal extension. She plans to undergo adjuvant whole-breast radiotherapy and systemic hormonal therapy. According to the landmark ACOSOG Z0011 trial, what is the recommended management of the axilla?
A.Immediate completion level I and II axillary lymph node dissection
B.Re-excision of the axilla to harvest at least 10 lymph nodes
C.Axillary nodal basin radiation boost followed by delay of systemic therapy
D.No completion axillary lymph node dissection
Explanation: The ACOSOG Z0011 randomized trial demonstrated that in patients with T1-T2 cN0 breast cancer undergoing lumpectomy with negative margins and adjuvant whole-breast radiotherapy and systemic therapy, completion axillary lymph node dissection (ALND) does not improve local control, disease-free survival, or overall survival compared to sentinel lymph node biopsy alone when 1 or 2 sentinel nodes contain metastases.
9A 34-year-old woman is confirmed to carry a deleterious BRCA1 germline mutation. During genetic and surgical counseling regarding risk-reducing interventions, which statement accurately reflects the clinical impact of risk-reducing bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (RRSO) in this patient?
A.RRSO reduces ovarian cancer risk by 10% and has no effect on breast cancer risk
B.RRSO reduces ovarian/tubal cancer risk by about 80–90%
C.RRSO should only be offered after age 50 to avoid premature surgical menopause
D.RRSO eliminates the need for future breast screening mammography or MRI
Explanation: In BRCA1 carriers, risk-reducing bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (RRSO) lowers the risk of ovarian, fallopian tube and primary peritoneal cancer by about 80–90% and reduces all-cause mortality; guidelines advise it at age 35–40 or when childbearing is complete. Older studies suggested it also roughly halves breast cancer risk when done premenopausally, but more recent prospective data show little or no breast cancer reduction in BRCA1 carriers, so intensive breast surveillance or risk-reducing mastectomy remains necessary.
10A 48-year-old woman undergoes core needle biopsy of a rapidly enlarging, firm 5 cm breast mass. Histopathology demonstrates marked stromal hypercellularity, severe nuclear atypia, infiltrative borders, and 14 mitoses per 10 high-power fields, confirming a malignant phyllodes tumor. What is the standard surgical management?
A.Wide excision with ≥1 cm margins, without axillary dissection
B.Lumpectomy with routine level I-III axillary lymph node dissection
C.Immediate modified radical mastectomy followed by systemic neoadjuvant chemotherapy
D.Radiation therapy alone as primary curative modality
Explanation: Phyllodes tumors are fibroepithelial neoplasms. Malignant phyllodes tumors spread primarily via hematogenous dissemination (most commonly to the lungs and bone), while lymphatic spread to regional axillary lymph nodes occurs in less than 1-2% of cases. Therefore, the standard surgical treatment is wide local excision (or mastectomy if needed to achieve clear margins) with at least 1 cm negative margins; routine axillary node dissection is not indicated.

About the OMSB General Surgery (OEGS) Exam

The Omani Examination for General Surgery (OEGS) is the Oman Medical Specialty Board occupational classification examination conducted for general surgery candidates applying for employment in local healthcare institutions across Oman. Delivered as a 100-question computer-based MCQ exam in English at the OMSB National Test Center or at Pearson VUE centres worldwide, the test assesses clinical decision-making, operative technique, emergency management, and patient safety. This question bank provides independent OpenExamPrep practice questions organized across the 20 blueprint domains; it is not an official OMSB resource.

Exam sponsor: Oman Medical Specialty Board (OMSB), Occupational Classification Testing Section. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes across 20 domains: Breast 10%; Hepatobiliary 10%; Lower GIT 10%; Endocrine 8%; Surgical oncology/abdominal wall/soft-tissue tumors 8%; Acute abdomen 6%; Hernia 6%; Upper GIT 6%; Bariatric 4%; Subspecialties (vascular, pediatric, plastic, lung/mediastinum) 4%; Complications 4%; Transplant 4%; Trauma 4%; Pre/postoperative care 3%; Surgical critical care 3%; Biostatistics 2%; Hemostasis and blood products 2%; Ethics 2%; Anesthesia and pain 2%; and Surgical infection 2% (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).

Time Limit

2 hours 30 minutes

Passing Score

65%

Exam / Certification Fees

USD 220

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

10%

Breast

Evaluation of palpable breast masses, mammographic abnormalities (BI-RADS), management of DCIS and invasive ductal/lobular carcinomas, breast conservation vs mastectomy, sentinel lymph node biopsy, and systemic endocrine/targeted therapies.

10%

Hepatobiliary

Acute and chronic cholecystitis, choledocholithiasis, acute ascending cholangitis, Tokyo Guidelines, hepatic abscesses, hepatocellular carcinoma, bile duct injury classification, and management of biliary strictures.

10%

Lower GIT

Colorectal cancer screening and staging, surgical resection principles (TME, hemicolectomy), acute diverticulitis (Hinchey classification), ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease surgical indications, volvulus, and anorectal sepsis and fistula.

8%

Endocrine

Evaluation of thyroid nodules (Bethesda criteria), papillary and follicular thyroid carcinomas, primary hyperparathyroidism localization and operative indications, pheochromocytoma, and adrenal incidentalomas.

8%

Surgical oncology/abdominal wall/soft-tissue tumors

Cutaneous melanoma resection margins and sentinel node biopsy, extremity and retroperitoneal soft tissue sarcomas, gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST), abdominal wall fibromatosis (desmoid tumors), and oncologic margins.

6%

Acute abdomen

Initial diagnostic approach, imaging modalities (ultrasound vs CT), differential diagnosis of acute abdominal pain, hollow viscus perforation, acute mesenteric ischemia, and operative vs non-operative management decisions.

6%

Hernia

Inguinal anatomy (myopectineal orifice of Fruchaud), Lichtenstein open repair, TAPP and TEP laparoscopic techniques, femoral hernia emergency presentation, ventral hernia component separation, and mesh infection management.

6%

Upper GIT

Staging and surgical management of esophageal adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma, gastric adenocarcinoma, perforated peptic ulcer, acute upper GI bleeding, achalasia, and GERD surgical indications (fundoplication).

4%

Bariatric

Candidate selection and contraindications for metabolic surgery, operative anatomy of sleeve gastrectomy and Roux-en-Y gastric bypass, management of staple line leaks, internal hernia, and marginal ulceration.

4%

Subspecialties (vascular, pediatric, plastic, lung/mediastinum)

Abdominal aortic aneurysm screening and rupture management, acute limb ischemia (6 Ps and Fogarty embolectomy), infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, malrotation, skin graft vs local flap choices, and spontaneous pneumothorax.

4%

Complications

Clavien-Dindo classification, detection and management of gastrointestinal anastomotic leaks, postoperative bleeding, deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism prophylaxis and treatment, and wound dehiscence.

4%

Transplant

Evaluation of brain-dead and circulatory-death donors, kidney and liver transplant indications, surgical complications (hepatic artery thrombosis, ureteral leak), immunosuppressive mechanisms, and graft rejection.

4%

Trauma

ATLS protocol prioritization, FAST exam in blunt abdominal trauma, indications for emergency exploratory laparotomy, damage control laparotomy steps (packing, temporary closure), and hepatic/splenic injury grading.

3%

Pre/postoperative care

Cardiac and pulmonary risk stratification (RCRI), preoperative fasting guidelines, ERAS multimodal pathways, total parenteral and enteral nutrition support, and postoperative delirium management.

3%

Surgical critical care

Physiologic monitoring, septic shock definition and early goal-directed resuscitation, acute respiratory distress syndrome (lung-protective ventilation), intra-abdominal hypertension, and abdominal compartment syndrome.

2%

Biostatistics

Study designs (cohort, case-control, randomized controlled trials), measures of association (odds ratio, relative risk), sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive values, and statistical significance testing.

2%

Hemostasis and blood products

Coagulation pathway physiology, indications for packed red blood cells, fresh frozen plasma, platelets, and cryoprecipitate, massive transfusion protocols (1:1:1 ratio), and reversal of direct oral anticoagulants and warfarin.

2%

Ethics

Informed consent requirements, assessing decision-making capacity, surrogate decision-makers, advance directives, do-not-resuscitate orders in the perioperative setting, and error disclosure.

2%

Anesthesia and pain

Local anesthetic toxicity thresholds and lipid rescue therapy, spinal vs epidural anesthesia anatomy, multimodal analgesia regimens, and perioperative airway evaluation and difficult airway algorithms.

2%

Surgical infection

CDC surgical site infection prevention guidelines, timing and selection of prophylactic antibiotics, management of necrotizing fasciitis, source control for tertiary peritonitis, and handling Clostridioides difficile enterocolitis.

Preparing for the OMSB General Surgery (OEGS) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 65%
  • Assessment: 100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes across 20 domains: Breast 10%; Hepatobiliary 10%; Lower GIT 10%; Endocrine 8%; Surgical oncology/abdominal wall/soft-tissue tumors 8%; Acute abdomen 6%; Hernia 6%; Upper GIT 6%; Bariatric 4%; Subspecialties (vascular, pediatric, plastic, lung/mediastinum) 4%; Complications 4%; Transplant 4%; Trauma 4%; Pre/postoperative care 3%; Surgical critical care 3%; Biostatistics 2%; Hemostasis and blood products 2%; Ethics 2%; Anesthesia and pain 2%; and Surgical infection 2% (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).
  • Time limit: 2 hours 30 minutes
  • Exam / certification fees: USD 220 Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

OMSB General Surgery (OEGS): Suggested Study Strategy

1Prioritize high-weight core domains: Breast (10%), Hepatobiliary (10%), and Lower GIT (10%) together account for 30% of the entire examination, closely followed by Endocrine (8%) and Surgical Oncology (8%).
2Focus on surgical decision-making: Questions emphasize clinical staging, indications for operative intervention versus conservative management, operative anatomy, and management of acute surgical emergencies.
3Review perioperative care and critical care principles: Be prepared for scenarios involving shock resuscitation, damage control surgery, massive transfusion protocols, surgical site infection bundles, and postoperative complications.
4Base your study on the official standard references suggested by OMSB: Schwartz's Principles of Surgery, ACS Surgery: Principles and Practice, and Mastery of Surgery.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the official name of the OMSB general surgery exam?

OMSB designates this examination the Omani Examination for General Surgery (OEGS). It is an occupational classification examination conducted for general surgery candidates applying for employment in local healthcare institutions across Oman.

How many questions are on the OEGS, and what is the time limit?

The OEGS consists of 100 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions administered over 2 hours and 30 minutes, according to OMSB's August 2025 booklet.

What are the passing score and fee for the OEGS?

The passing score is 65% and the examination fee is USD 220 paid through Pearson VUE. Candidates receive their results via email within 24 hours of completing the test.

Who is eligible to take the OEGS examination?

Eligibility criteria are classified as not published in the official booklet. Candidates must register through the OMSB Occupational Classification Testing Section before scheduling an appointment on Pearson VUE.

Where can candidates take the OEGS examination?

Candidates residing in Oman take the exam at the OMSB National Test Center located at Innovation Park Muscat. Candidates residing outside Oman can take it at authorized Pearson VUE test centres worldwide.

Is this practice question bank an official OMSB resource?

No. This question bank provides independent OpenExamPrep practice questions based on the 20 topic areas published in the OMSB examination blueprint. For official curriculum guidelines and examination booking, visit omsb.gov.om and pearsonvue.com/omsb.