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Key Facts: OMSB Family Medicine (OEFM) Exam

100 MCQs

Single-best-answer questions on the OEFM

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1-iE8q_Ex0eIe0W2rX6GEp0Wj3uiz6Tl5/view

2 h 30 min

Examination duration

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1-iE8q_Ex0eIe0W2rX6GEp0Wj3uiz6Tl5/view

65%

Passing mark

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1-iE8q_Ex0eIe0W2rX6GEp0Wj3uiz6Tl5/view

USD 220

Examination fee via Pearson VUE

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1-iE8q_Ex0eIe0W2rX6GEp0Wj3uiz6Tl5/view

21 domains

Primary care blueprint areas tested

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1-iE8q_Ex0eIe0W2rX6GEp0Wj3uiz6Tl5/view

The OEFM consists of 100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes, costs USD 220 and requires 65% to pass (OMSB booklet, August 2025). Candidates take the exam for occupational classification and healthcare licensing in Oman. These 100 independent practice questions cover all 21 blueprint domains in their published proportions, using primary care references including Swanson's Family Medicine Review, Murtagh's General Practice, and Rakel's Textbook of Family Medicine.

Sample OMSB Family Medicine (OEFM) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the OMSB Family Medicine (OEFM) exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 54-year-old man presents for a routine check-up. Over three separate visits spanning two months, his clinic blood pressure readings average 154/96 mmHg, confirmed on 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (mean daytime BP 148/92 mmHg). He has no history of diabetes, chronic kidney disease, or cardiovascular disease, and his estimated 10-year cardiovascular risk is 14%. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacological monotherapy according to primary care hypertension guidelines?
A.Atenolol 50 mg once daily
B.Clonidine 0.1 mg twice daily
C.Amlodipine 5 mg once daily
D.Doxazosin 1 mg once daily
Explanation: First-line antihypertensive classes for primary essential hypertension in non-diabetic adults without CKD include calcium channel blockers (CCBs such as amlodipine), thiazide/thiazide-like diuretics, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs. Amlodipine is a highly effective once-daily dihydropyridine CCB with robust evidence for stroke and major adverse cardiovascular event reduction. Beta-blockers like atenolol are no longer recommended as routine first-line monotherapy in uncomplicated hypertension due to inferior cardioprotection against stroke.
2A 66-year-old woman with ischemic cardiomyopathy and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF, left ventricular ejection fraction 32%) presents for follow-up. She currently takes lisinopril 20 mg once daily and carvedilol 25 mg twice daily. She remains in NYHA Functional Class II with mild exertional dyspnea. Her blood pressure is 122/76 mmHg, heart rate is 64 bpm, serum potassium is 4.3 mEq/L, and estimated GFR is 62 mL/min/1.73 m2. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate next addition to reduce mortality and hospitalization?
A.Spironolactone 25 mg once daily
B.Digoxin 0.125 mg once daily
C.Furosemide 40 mg twice daily
D.Isosorbide mononitrate 30 mg once daily
Explanation: In patients with symptomatic HFrEF (ejection fraction <= 35% or <= 40%) already receiving an ACE inhibitor (or ARNI) and an evidence-based beta-blocker, adding a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA) such as spironolactone or eplerenone provides proven mortality reduction and decreases heart failure hospitalizations (RALES and EMPHASIS-HF trials). Spironolactone is indicated given her potassium < 5.0 mEq/L and eGFR > 30 mL/min/1.73 m2. Digoxin and oral nitrates do not confer a mortality benefit.
3A 72-year-old woman presents to the clinic for management of newly documented paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. Her medical history includes well-controlled hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. She has never had a transient ischemic attack, stroke, or thromboembolism. On examination, she is in sinus rhythm with blood pressure 130/82 mmHg. Her laboratory results show normal renal function with a creatinine clearance of 68 mL/min. Which of the following is her correct CHA2DS2-VASc score and recommended stroke prevention strategy?
A.CHA2DS2-VASc score 2; initiate aspirin 81 mg daily monotherapy
B.CHA2DS2-VASc score 4; initiate oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)
C.CHA2DS2-VASc score 3; prescribe dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel
D.CHA2DS2-VASc score 1; no antithrombotic therapy is warranted
Explanation: The CHA2DS2-VASc score assigns points for Congestive heart failure (1), Hypertension (1), Age >= 75 (2), Diabetes mellitus (1), Stroke/TIA/thromboembolism (2), Vascular disease (1), Age 65-74 (1), and Sex category female (1). This patient receives: Age 72 (1 point) + Female sex (1 point) + Hypertension (1 point) + Diabetes (1 point) = 4 points. For women with a score >= 3 (or >= 2 excluding female sex alone), oral anticoagulation is strongly recommended to prevent thromboembolic stroke, with direct oral anticoagulants (apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran, edoxaban) preferred over warfarin.
4A 48-year-old male smoker attends a primary care health check. He has no personal history of cardiovascular disease or diabetes. His physical examination is unremarkable with blood pressure 126/78 mmHg and BMI 26 kg/m2. Fasting lipid panel reveals total cholesterol 278 mg/dL, HDL-C 42 mg/dL, triglycerides 220 mg/dL, and LDL-C 192 mg/dL (5.0 mmol/L). According to current cardiovascular prevention guidelines, what is the most appropriate management regarding lipid-lowering therapy?
A.Defer statin therapy and re-evaluate lipid profile after 6 months of dietary modification
B.Initiate low-intensity statin therapy (e.g., pravastatin 20 mg once daily)
C.Initiate moderate-intensity statin therapy only if his 10-year ASCVD risk exceeds 20%
D.Initiate high-intensity statin therapy (e.g., atorvastatin 40 mg to 80 mg once daily)
Explanation: Severe primary hypercholesterolemia with baseline LDL-C >= 190 mg/dL (>= 4.9 mmol/L) is a high-risk condition that warrants immediate high-intensity statin therapy (such as atorvastatin 40-80 mg or rosuvastatin 20-40 mg) without requiring prior 10-year risk estimation. The high lifetime exposure to elevated atherogenic lipoproteins leads to premature coronary heart disease, and high-intensity statin therapy aims to achieve >= 50% LDL-C reduction.
5A 64-year-old man with a 35 pack-year smoking history and type 2 diabetes presents with a 6-month history of aching pain in both calves that reliably comes on after walking 200 metres and resolves completely within 5 minutes of standing still. Physical examination reveals cool lower extremities, thin shiny skin with hair loss on the shins, and diminished dorsalis pedis pulses bilaterally. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A.Resting ankle-brachial index (ABI)
B.Duplex ultrasound of the lower extremity arterial tree
C.Computed tomography angiography (CTA) of the abdominal aorta and lower extremities
D.Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) of the lower extremities
Explanation: The clinical presentation is classic for intermittent claudication secondary to peripheral artery disease (PAD). The first-line, non-invasive diagnostic test of choice in primary care is the resting ankle-brachial index (ABI). An ABI <= 0.90 is diagnostic of PAD with high sensitivity and specificity. Cross-sectional imaging (CTA or MRA) or formal duplex ultrasound is reserved for anatomical mapping when revascularization (surgical bypass or endovascular intervention) is being planned.
6A 60-year-old man with diagnosed stable angina pectoris presents for follow-up. He reports retrosternal chest tightness twice weekly when climbing two flights of stairs, relieved promptly by resting or sublingual nitroglycerin. He is currently taking metoprolol succinate 50 mg once daily, aspirin 81 mg daily, and atorvastatin 40 mg daily. On examination, his blood pressure is 128/78 mmHg and resting heart rate is 74 bpm. What is the most appropriate next step in optimizing his anti-anginal medical therapy?
A.Add oral isosorbide mononitrate 30 mg once daily immediately without changing beta-blocker dose
B.Switch metoprolol to verapamil 240 mg extended-release once daily
C.Refer immediately for urgent elective coronary artery bypass graft surgery
D.Up-titrate metoprolol succinate toward a resting heart rate target of 55 to 60 bpm
Explanation: In stable ischemic heart disease, beta-blockers are first-line anti-anginal agents that reduce myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart rate, contractility, and afterload. The therapeutic goal of beta-blocker therapy in chronic stable angina is to titrate the dose until the resting heart rate reaches 55 to 60 bpm, provided blood pressure permits and there are no conduction blocks. Because this patient's resting heart rate is 74 bpm, increasing the metoprolol dose is the most appropriate next step before adding a second anti-anginal drug.
7At her infant's 6-month well-child visit, a mother asks why the measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine is not given yet, since measles cases have been reported in the community. Which explanation for routinely starting MMR at about 12 months of age is correct?
A.MMR is an inactivated vaccine that needs a mature spleen to produce antibodies
B.Maternal antibodies can neutralize the live vaccine virus and reduce seroconversion
C.MMR contains thimerosal, which is unsafe before 12 months of age
D.Measles does not infect infants under 12 months, so earlier protection is unnecessary
Explanation: MMR is a live attenuated vaccine. Before about 12 months, persisting maternal antibodies can neutralize the vaccine virus and blunt the immune response, so routine schedules give the first dose at 12 months or later (Oman's national schedule gives MMR at 12 and 18 months; the US schedule at 12–15 months and 4–6 years). In outbreaks or before travel an extra dose may be given from 6 months, but it does not count toward the routine two-dose series.
8An 18-month-old boy is brought to the clinic with a 2-day history of low-grade fever, rhinorrhea, and a characteristic harsh 'barking' seal-like cough that worsens at night. On examination, he is alert and playing with a toy. He exhibits hoarseness and mild inspiratory stridor only when crying or agitated, with no stridor at rest, no sternal retractions, and oxygen saturation 98% on ambient air. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this child?
A.Immediate admission to the pediatric intensive care unit for racemic epinephrine nebulization
B.Oral amoxicillin-clavulanate 90 mg/kg/day for 10 days
C.A single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg to 0.6 mg/kg) and discharge with home observation
D.Inhaled salbutamol via spacer every 4 hours
Explanation: This child has mild croup (laryngotracheobronchitis, Westley croup score <= 2: barking cough, stridor only when agitated, no respiratory distress at rest). The cornerstone of treatment for all severities of croup is a single dose of systemic corticosteroid—most commonly oral dexamethasone at 0.15 mg/kg to 0.6 mg/kg (maximum 16 mg). Dexamethasone reduces laryngeal mucosal edema, decreases return visits, and prevents symptom progression. Racemic epinephrine is reserved for moderate-to-severe croup with stridor at rest.
9A 5-month-old infant is evaluated in the outpatient clinic during winter with a 3-day history of clear nasal congestion, low-grade fever (37.9°C), and worsening cough. Physical examination reveals mild tachypnea (respiratory rate 44 breaths/min), bilateral expiratory wheezing, and fine crackles on auscultation. There are no chest wall retractions, oxygen saturation is 96% on room air, and the infant is feeding well with normal wet diaper output. What is the most appropriate management according to clinical practice guidelines for acute bronchiolitis?
A.Supportive care: suction, hydration and red-flag advice
B.Trial of nebulized hypertonic 3% saline and oral azithromycin
C.Prescription of oral prednisolone 2 mg/kg/day for 5 days
D.Chest radiography and empiric amoxicillin 90 mg/kg/day
Explanation: Acute viral bronchiolitis (most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus [RSV]) in infants is a self-limiting lower respiratory tract infection. Clinical guidelines (such as AAP) explicitly recommend against routine use of bronchodilators, systemic corticosteroids, antibiotics, or chest radiographs in typical mild bronchiolitis. Supportive care—including gentle nasal suctioning, maintaining adequate oral fluid intake, and educating parents on signs of respiratory fatigue (tachypnea, grunting, retractions)—is the mainstay of management.
10A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic with watery diarrhea and vomiting for 24 hours. On examination, she is alert and active, has moist oral mucous membranes, normal skin turgor, immediate capillary refill (< 2 seconds), and no signs of circulatory compromise. Her weight is 12 kg, down approximately 3% from her baseline 2 weeks ago. What is the first-line management strategy for this child's dehydration?
A.Intravenous infusion of normal saline (0.9% NaCl) at 20 mL/kg bolus
B.Oral administration of loperamide syrup and clear apple juice
C.Complete gut rest (NPO) for 12 hours followed by diluted cow's milk
D.Oral rehydration with low-osmolarity ORS in small, frequent sips
Explanation: For children with mild-to-moderate dehydration (3% to 5% fluid deficit) secondary to acute gastroenteritis, oral rehydration therapy (ORT) with low-osmolarity oral rehydration solution (ORS) is the treatment of choice. ORS exploits the sodium-glucose cotransporter (SGLT1) in the enterocyte brush border, which remains intact during viral gastroenteritis. Intravenous fluid resuscitation is reserved for severe dehydration (> 9-10% loss), hemodynamic shock, intractable vomiting failing small-sip ORT, or altered mental status.

About the OMSB Family Medicine (OEFM) Exam

The Omani Examination for Family Medicine (OEFM) is the Oman Medical Specialty Board occupational classification examination conducted for family medicine candidates applying for employment in local healthcare institutions in the Sultanate of Oman. The exam ensures candidates can practise safely and serves as eligibility criteria for recruitment and professional classification. Format is computer-based MCQ only (100 single-best-answer questions in 2 hours 30 minutes, delivered in English at OMSB National Test Center or Pearson VUE test centres worldwide). This free bank provides independent OpenExamPrep practice for the 21 blueprint domains; it is not an official OMSB resource.

Exam sponsor: Oman Medical Specialty Board (OMSB), Occupational Classification Testing Section. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes across 21 domains: Cardiovascular System (6%), Child Health (6%), Emergency Medicine (6%), Endocrine System (6%), Infectious Diseases (6%), Musculoskeletal System (6%), Women's Health (6%), Respiratory System (5%), Gastrointestinal System (5%), Dermatology (5%), Ear, Nose and Throat (5%), Eye Conditions (5%), Hematology (5%), Care of the Elderly (5%), Mental Health (5%), Neurology (5%), Epidemiology and Public Health (3%), Genitourinary System (3%), Nephrology (3%), Research and Evidence-Based Medicine (3%), and Surgery and Orthopedics (1%) (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).

Time Limit

2 hours 30 minutes

Passing Score

65%

Exam / Certification Fees

USD 220

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

6%

Cardiovascular System

Hypertension assessment and stepped therapy, coronary artery disease, heart failure management, dyslipidemia, atrial fibrillation, and peripheral vascular disease in primary care.

6%

Child Health

Well-child development and growth tracking, childhood immunizations, acute febrile illnesses, common pediatric respiratory infections, gastroenteritis with dehydration, and pediatric developmental red flags.

6%

Emergency Medicine

Office-based triage and initial stabilization of medical emergencies, anaphylaxis, acute chest pain, acute asthma exacerbation, status epilepticus, and basic/advanced cardiac life support protocols.

6%

Endocrine System

Type 2 diabetes mellitus diagnosis, lifestyle and pharmacotherapy, diabetic complications, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, adrenal disorders, and metabolic syndrome.

6%

Infectious Diseases

Community-acquired respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, viral hepatitis, gastrointestinal infections, tuberculosis screening, rational antibiotic stewardship, and vaccine-preventable diseases.

6%

Musculoskeletal System

Mechanical low back pain, osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis diagnosis and DMARD monitoring, tendinopathies, fibromyalgia, and acute joint sprains.

6%

Women's Health

Contraceptive counseling and options, abnormal uterine bleeding, cervical cancer screening and HPV, menopausal hormone therapy, antenatal primary care screening, and polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).

5%

Respiratory System

Asthma diagnosis, spirometry interpretation, stepped inhaler therapy, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) staging and exacerbations, chronic cough workup, and smoking cessation.

5%

Gastrointestinal System

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), peptic ulcer disease and H. pylori eradication, irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), and colorectal cancer screening.

5%

Dermatology

Primary care management of eczema/atopic dermatitis, psoriasis, acne vulgaris, skin infections (cellulitis, fungal, herpes zoster), and identification of suspicious pigmented lesions.

5%

Ear, Nose and Throat

Acute otitis media and otitis externa, pharyngitis/tonsillitis (Centor criteria), allergic rhinitis, acute and chronic rhinosinusitis, epistaxis, and benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV).

5%

Eye Conditions

Red eye differential diagnosis (conjunctivitis, episcleritis, keratitis, uveitis), acute angle-closure glaucoma recognition, diabetic and hypertensive retinopathy screening, cataracts, and foreign body evaluation.

5%

Hematology

Iron deficiency anemia evaluation and replacement, thalassemia trait vs iron deficiency differentiation, megaloblastic anemias, deep vein thrombosis (DVT) evaluation, and initial workup of lymphadenopathy.

5%

Care of the Elderly

Comprehensive geriatric assessment, fall risk evaluation, polypharmacy and Beers criteria deprescribing, delirium vs dementia distinction, Alzheimer's disease management, and osteoporosis screening and therapy.

5%

Mental Health

Major depressive disorder diagnosis and pharmacotherapy/psychotherapy, generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, insomnia, substance use disorders, and suicide risk assessment.

5%

Neurology

Primary headaches (migraine, tension-type, cluster), secondary headache red flags (SNOOP criteria), transient ischemic attack (TIA) workup, Bell's palsy, essential tremor vs Parkinson's disease, and peripheral neuropathies.

3%

Epidemiology and Public Health

Preventive health maintenance schedules, disease screening principles, communicable disease notification in Oman, outbreak investigation, and health promotion.

3%

Genitourinary System

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) medical management, male lower urinary tract symptoms, erectile dysfunction, hematuria evaluation protocols, and screening for prostate cancer.

3%

Nephrology

Chronic kidney disease (CKD) staging, monitoring and slowing progression, albuminuria management with ACEi/ARBs, acute kidney injury (AKI) identification, and electrolyte disorders.

3%

Research and Evidence-Based Medicine

Study designs (randomized controlled trials, cohort, case-control), measures of effect (relative risk, odds ratio, number needed to treat), diagnostic test accuracy, and evidence hierarchies.

1%

Surgery and Orthopedics

Outpatient surgical procedures, minor wound care, suture techniques, abscess incision and drainage, and red flags for urgent surgical referral.

Preparing for the OMSB Family Medicine (OEFM) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 65%
  • Assessment: 100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes across 21 domains: Cardiovascular System (6%), Child Health (6%), Emergency Medicine (6%), Endocrine System (6%), Infectious Diseases (6%), Musculoskeletal System (6%), Women's Health (6%), Respiratory System (5%), Gastrointestinal System (5%), Dermatology (5%), Ear, Nose and Throat (5%), Eye Conditions (5%), Hematology (5%), Care of the Elderly (5%), Mental Health (5%), Neurology (5%), Epidemiology and Public Health (3%), Genitourinary System (3%), Nephrology (3%), Research and Evidence-Based Medicine (3%), and Surgery and Orthopedics (1%) (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).
  • Time limit: 2 hours 30 minutes
  • Exam / certification fees: USD 220 Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

OMSB Family Medicine (OEFM): Suggested Study Strategy

1Prioritize high-yield core clinical systems: cardiovascular, child health, emergency, endocrine, infection, musculoskeletal, and women's health comprise 6% each, collectively representing 42% of the examination.
2Review common primary care outpatient presentations across respiratory, GI, dermatology, ENT, eyes, hematology, geriatrics, mental health, and neurology (5% each), which together account for 45% of test items.
3Do not overlook the smaller foundational domains: epidemiology and public health (3%), nephrology (3%), genitourinary medicine (3%), research/EBM (3%), and minor surgery/orthopedics (1%) make up the final 13%.
4Anchor clinical review on the booklet's recommended textbooks: Swanson's Family Medicine Review, Murtagh's General Practice, and Rakel's Textbook of Family Medicine.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the official name of the OMSB family medicine exam?

OMSB designates it as the Omani Examination for Family Medicine (OEFM). It is conducted as an occupational classification examination for family physicians applying for healthcare posts in the Sultanate of Oman.

How many questions are on the OEFM, and what is the testing time?

The examination comprises 100 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions administered over 2 hours and 30 minutes, in accordance with the OMSB August 2025 examination booklet.

What are the passing score and examination fee?

The passing score is 65% and the examination fee is USD 220, payable through Pearson VUE upon scheduling. Results are delivered by email within 24 hours of completing the test.

Who is eligible to take the Omani Examination for Family Medicine?

The exam is conducted for candidates applying for clinical positions in local healthcare institutions in Oman. Detailed eligibility prerequisites are not published in the blueprint booklet; candidates must complete verification with the OMSB Occupational Classification Section.

Where is the exam delivered?

Candidates residing within Oman sit the exam at the OMSB National Test Center located in Innovation Park Muscat. Candidates outside Oman test at Pearson VUE authorized centres globally.

Is this practice question bank an official OMSB publication?

No. This practice bank is an independent educational resource created by OpenExamPrep covering the 21 domains of the OMSB blueprint. For official policy and scheduling, consult OMSB and Pearson VUE.