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Free Practice Questions for OMSB Emergency Medicine (OEEM)

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Key Facts: OMSB Emergency Medicine (OEEM) Exam

100 MCQs

Single-best-answer questions on the OEEM

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1v94xvc6XilpLbCIK42CY9Pm0xcQkJFRk/view

2 h 30 min

Examination duration

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1v94xvc6XilpLbCIK42CY9Pm0xcQkJFRk/view

65%

Passing score

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1v94xvc6XilpLbCIK42CY9Pm0xcQkJFRk/view

USD 220

Examination fee

https://omsb.gov.om/home/infoPage?id=53

21 domains

Blueprint domains led by pediatrics and resuscitation at 10% each

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1v94xvc6XilpLbCIK42CY9Pm0xcQkJFRk/view

The OEEM features 100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes, costs USD 220 on Pearson VUE, and requires 65% to pass (OMSB booklet, August 2025). The exam covers 21 clinical domains led by pediatrics (10%), resuscitation (10%), cardiology (8%), trauma (7%), and ENT/ophthalmology/dermatology/dental emergencies (7%).

Sample OMSB Emergency Medicine (OEEM) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the OMSB Emergency Medicine (OEEM) exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1An 18-month-old child presents to the emergency department at 02:00 with a 2-day history of low-grade fever, rhinorrhea, a barking cough, and audible inspiratory stridor at rest. The child is alert, with mild intercostal retractions and an oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological management?
A.Inhaled salbutamol and oral amoxicillin
B.Oral diphenhydramine and humidified mist therapy
C.Oral dexamethasone and nebulized racemic epinephrine
D.Intravenous ceftriaxone and nebulized budesonide
Explanation: This toddler has moderate-to-severe croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) evidenced by inspiratory stridor and retractions at rest. First-line therapy consists of oral dexamethasone (0.6 mg/kg single dose) to reduce subglottic mucosal edema alongside nebulized epinephrine for rapid symptom relief. Corticosteroids improve outcomes in all croup severities, while nebulized epinephrine provides rapid but transient improvement while steroids take effect.
2A term male infant is delivered precipitously in the emergency department. After initial drying, warming, clearing of secretions, and gentle tactile stimulation for 30 seconds, the infant remains apneic with poor tone and a heart rate of 70 beats per minute. What is the immediate next step in resuscitation according to neonatal resuscitation guidelines?
A.Initiate chest compressions with a 3:1 compression-to-ventilation ratio
B.Initiate positive-pressure ventilation (PPV) with room air (21% oxygen)
C.Administer intravenous epinephrine 0.02 mg/kg via umbilical vein
D.Apply continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) at 5 cm H2O with 100% oxygen
Explanation: In neonatal resuscitation, if the newborn is apneic, gasping, or has a heart rate below 100 beats/min after initial steps, positive-pressure ventilation (PPV) must be initiated immediately at 40-60 breaths/min. For term newborns, resuscitation starts with room air (21% oxygen). Effective ventilation is the single most critical intervention in neonatal resuscitation.
3A 21-day-old infant is brought to the emergency department with irritability, poor feeding, and a rectal temperature of 38.6°C. Physical examination reveals an irritable neonate without a focal source of infection. Which of the following represents the most appropriate management plan?
A.Full sepsis workup (blood, urine, CSF) with admission and IV ampicillin plus gentamicin or a cephalosporin
B.Blood and urine cultures with outpatient oral amoxicillin and mandatory follow-up in 24 hours
C.Urine dipstick only, with discharge if negative and symptomatic antipyretic therapy with ibuprofen
D.Chest radiograph and blood culture followed by single-dose intramuscular ceftriaxone and home discharge
Explanation: Infants aged 28 days or younger with fever (≥38.0°C) have a high risk of invasive bacterial infection (approx. 10-15%), including Listeria monocytogenes, Group B Streptococcus, and Escherichia coli. Current pediatric guidelines mandate a full sepsis evaluation including blood culture, catheterized urinalysis/culture, and lumbar puncture for CSF analysis and culture, followed by hospital admission and empiric IV ampicillin and cefotaxime (or gentamicin).
4A 3-year-old child is actively seizing with generalized tonic-clonic convulsions upon arrival in the emergency department. The parents report the seizure started 10 minutes ago at home. Intravenous access has not yet been established. What is the preferred first-line anticonvulsant and route?
A.Intravenous phenytoin 20 mg/kg via hand vein
B.Oral levetiracetam 30 mg/kg solution
C.Subcutaneous phenobarbital 20 mg/kg
D.Intramuscular or intranasal midazolam 0.2 mg/kg
Explanation: When intravenous access is unavailable in pediatric status epilepticus, non-intravenous benzodiazepines are first-line. Intramuscular or intranasal midazolam (0.2 mg/kg, maximum 10 mg) or rectal diazepam provides rapid anticonvulsant efficacy without waiting for vascular access. Midazolam has excellent transmucosal and intramuscular absorption.
5A 9-month-old infant presents with 3 days of severe watery diarrhea and recurrent vomiting. Examination reveals sunken eyes, deeply sunken anterior fontanelle, dry mucous membranes, cool extremities with capillary refill time of 4 seconds, lethargy, and a heart rate of 185 beats per minute. What is the most appropriate initial fluid resuscitation strategy?
A.Oral rehydration solution at 100 mL/kg administered via nasogastric tube over 4 hours
B.IV 20 mL/kg isotonic crystalloid bolus (saline or Ringer's lactate), then reassess
C.Intravenous maintenance fluid infusion of 5% dextrose in 0.2% normal saline at twice maintenance rate
D.Intravenous infusion of 10 mL/kg 3% hypertonic saline over 30 minutes
Explanation: This infant exhibits signs of severe dehydration and hypovolemic shock (delayed capillary refill, lethargy, marked tachycardia). Immediate intravascular volume expansion with an isotonic crystalloid bolus of 20 mL/kg (normal saline or Ringer's lactate) over 10-20 minutes is required, followed by reassessment of perfusion markers before delivering additional boluses or maintenance fluids.
6An 8-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department for episodes of inconsolable crying during which he flexes his legs toward his abdomen, followed by periods of lethargy. While being examined, he passes a dark red, gelatinous stool. The abdomen is non-distended but a sausage-shaped mass is palpable in the right upper quadrant. What is the diagnostic and therapeutic procedure of choice?
A.Ultrasound-guided or fluoroscopic air-contrast enema reduction
B.Immediate exploratory laparotomy with bowel resection
C.Computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with oral contrast
D.Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and small bowel enteroscopy
Explanation: This presentation is classic for pediatric intussusception (episodic severe abdominal pain, drawing up legs, right upper quadrant sausage mass, 'currant jelly' stool). In a stable child without signs of peritonitis or bowel perforation, pneumatic (air) or hydrostatic contrast enema under fluoroscopic or sonographic guidance is both the definitive diagnostic and first-line therapeutic procedure, with success rates exceeding 80-90%.
7A 2-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department after a sudden choking fit while eating peanuts 2 hours ago. She now has a persistent dry cough and focal right-sided expiratory wheeze. Chest radiography demonstrates right lung hyperlucency with flattening of the hemidiaphragm and contralateral mediastinal shift on expiration. What is the definitive management?
A.Administration of nebulized salbutamol and oral prednisolone
B.Flexible outpatient bronchoscopy scheduled for the following week
C.Urgent rigid bronchoscopy in the operating room
D.Chest physiotherapy with postural percussion and drainage
Explanation: This patient has clinical and radiographic evidence of tracheobronchial foreign body aspiration causing a 'ball-valve' obstruction in the right mainstem bronchus (air trapping, hyperlucency, and mediastinal shift away from the affected side on expiration). The gold-standard definitive procedure is urgent rigid bronchoscopy under general anesthesia, which provides airway control and allows instrumentation to extract the foreign body.
8A 4-week-old first-born male infant presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting after feedings for the past 5 days. Examination demonstrates mild jaundice and a firm, mobile 1.5 cm mass in the epigastrium. Venous blood gas reveals pH 7.52, pCO2 48 mmHg, sodium 132 mEq/L, potassium 2.9 mEq/L, chloride 84 mEq/L, and bicarbonate 34 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most critical management priority prior to surgical consultation?
A.Immediate urgent surgical pyloromyotomy within 2 hours of arrival
B.Placement of a nasojejunal feeding tube and continuous elemental feeding
C.Administration of intravenous sodium bicarbonate infusion
D.Intravenous rehydration with isotonic saline supplemented with potassium chloride
Explanation: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis causes loss of gastric hydrochloric acid and potassium, producing a classic hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. Pyloric stenosis is a medical resuscitation emergency rather than a surgical emergency; surgical pyloromyotomy must never be performed until hydration and electrolyte/acid-base derangements are fully corrected (chloride > 100 mEq/L, bicarbonate < 30 mEq/L, potassium normalized) to avoid life-threatening postoperative apnea.
9A 4-year-old unimmunized child presents with a toxic appearance, high fever (39.8°C), sore throat, drooling, and a muffled 'hot potato' voice. The child is sitting upright leaning forward with the neck extended (tripod position) and is in marked respiratory distress. What is the most critical initial management principle?
A.Perform immediate direct visualization of the posterior pharynx using a tongue depressor to assess the tonsils
B.Keep the child calm in the parent's arms, minimize invasive procedures, and assemble an airway team (anesthesiology and ENT) for controlled operating room intubation
C.Place the child in the supine position and obtain immediate portable lateral soft tissue neck radiographs
D.Immediately establish peripheral intravenous access and perform bedside endotracheal intubation without assistance
Explanation: This presentation is strongly suggestive of acute epiglottitis (supraglottitis). Any agitation—such as using a tongue blade, placing an IV, or forcing the child supine—can trigger sudden laryngospasm and complete airway obstruction. The patient must be kept as calm as possible in a position of comfort while immediately mobilizing an experienced airway team (senior emergency physician, anesthesiologist, and otolaryngologist) for controlled airway securing in the operating room.
10A 5-year-old child with septic shock remains hypotensive (blood pressure 68/34 mmHg) despite 60 mL/kg of isotonic crystalloid. Examination shows bounding peripheral pulses, warm extremities, flash capillary refill (<1 second) and a wide pulse pressure ('warm shock'). Using the American College of Critical Care Medicine (ACCM) clinical practice parameters, which distinguish warm from cold shock, which vasoactive agent is recommended first?
A.Norepinephrine
B.Epinephrine
C.Dopamine
D.Phenylephrine
Explanation: The 2017 ACCM clinical practice parameters for pediatric and neonatal septic shock advise titrating norepinephrine for fluid-refractory 'warm' (vasodilated, low systemic vascular resistance) shock, to restore vascular tone and diastolic pressure, and epinephrine for 'cold' shock with myocardial dysfunction and high vascular resistance. The Surviving Sepsis Campaign pediatric guidelines (2020, carried into the 2026 update) found insufficient evidence to prefer either drug and accept epinephrine or norepinephrine chosen by individual patient physiology.

About the OMSB Emergency Medicine (OEEM) Exam

The Omani Examination for Emergency Medicine (OEEM) is an occupational classification exam conducted by the Oman Medical Specialty Board for emergency medicine candidates applying for employment in local healthcare institutions in Oman. It evaluates clinical decision-making, acute resuscitation, diagnostic management, and procedural safety across 21 core emergency medicine domains. Delivered in English as a computer-based single-best-answer MCQ examination at the OMSB National Test Center or Pearson VUE test centres worldwide, it is used as an eligibility criterion for employment in Oman. This question bank provides independent OpenExamPrep practice questions for the OEEM; it is not affiliated with or endorsed by OMSB.

Exam sponsor: Oman Medical Specialty Board (OMSB), Occupational Classification Testing Section. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes across 21 domains: Pediatrics 10%, Resuscitation 10%, Cardiology 8%, Trauma 7%, Dental/ENT/ophthalmology/dermatology 7%, Toxicology 6%, Endocrine/metabolic 4%, Environment 4%, Administration/ethics/practice and research 4%, Gynecology 4%, Infectious disease 4%, Neurology 4%, Orthopedics 4%, Respiratory 4%, Special populations 4%, GI 3%, Hematology/oncology/immunology 3%, Nephrology/urology 3%, Surgery/plastics 3%, EMS/disaster 2%, and Psychiatry 2% (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).

Time Limit

2 hours 30 minutes

Passing Score

65%

Exam / Certification Fees

USD 220

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

10%

Pediatrics

Pediatric resuscitation, neonatal resuscitation, airway emergencies (croup, epiglottitis, foreign body aspiration), status epilepticus, acute dehydration and fluid management, fever in young infants, and pediatric abdominal emergencies.

10%

Resuscitation

Adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation algorithms, post-cardiac arrest care, rapid sequence intubation, difficult airway algorithms, undifferentiated shock, vasopressors and inotropes, and blood gas interpretation.

8%

Cardiology

Acute coronary syndrome diagnosis and reperfusion strategies, broad- and narrow-complex tachyarrhythmias, symptomatic bradycardias, acute decompensated heart failure, cardiogenic shock, acute pericarditis and cardiac tamponade, and aortic syndromes.

7%

Trauma

ATLS primary and secondary survey principles, severe traumatic brain injury and intracranial pressure management, tension pneumothorax and hemothorax, pelvic fractures, massive transfusion protocol, and damage control resuscitation.

7%

Dental, ENT, Ophthalmology, and Dermatology

Acute angle-closure glaucoma, central retinal artery occlusion, chemical ocular burns, severe epistaxis, peritonsillar and retropharyngeal abscesses, Ludwig angina, tooth avulsion, anaphylaxis, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, and necrotizing fasciitis.

6%

Toxicology

Common toxidromes (anticholinergic, cholinergic, sympathomimetic, opioid, sedative-hypnotic), acute poisoning management (acetaminophen, salicylates, calcium channel blockers, beta-blockers, toxic alcohols), and specific reversal antidotes.

4%

Endocrine and Metabolic

Diabetic ketoacidosis, hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, adrenal crisis, thyroid storm, severe hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, and symptomatic hypoglycemia.

4%

Environment

Exertional and classic heat stroke, accidental hypothermia, electrical and lightning injuries, fatal and non-fatal drowning, marine and snake envenomation, and high-altitude disorders.

4%

Administration, Ethics, Practice and Research

Emergency department triage protocols, capacity assessment and medical decision-making, informed consent and refusal of care, medical error disclosure, patient safety, and critical appraisal of clinical literature.

4%

Gynecology

Ruptured ectopic pregnancy, acute pelvic inflammatory disease and tubo-ovarian abscess, ovarian torsion, abnormal uterine bleeding, sexual assault evaluation, and early pregnancy complications.

4%

Infectious Disease

Severe sepsis and septic shock resuscitation bundles, acute bacterial and viral meningitis, encephalitis, severe soft tissue infections, fever in the returning traveller, malaria, and empiric antibiotic therapy.

4%

Neurology

Acute ischemic stroke thrombolytic and endovascular indications, spontaneous intracerebral hemorrhage, subarachnoid hemorrhage workup, status epilepticus, central nervous system infections, and acute peripheral neuropathies.

4%

Orthopedics

Major joint dislocations and closed reduction techniques, fracture classification and initial stabilization, neurovascular integrity assessment, acute compartment syndrome, and native/prosthetic septic arthritis.

4%

Respiratory

Near-fatal asthma exacerbation, acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, massive and submassive pulmonary embolism, community-acquired and aspiration pneumonia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and non-invasive ventilation.

4%

Special Populations

Physiologic adjustments of pregnancy, trauma in pregnancy, peripartum cardiomyopathy, amniotic fluid embolism, geriatric atypical disease presentations, polypharmacy, and delirium.

3%

Gastroenterology

Acute upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage, esophageal variceal bleeding, acute pancreatitis severity stratification, acute cholangitis, acute mesenteric ischemia, and acute bowel obstruction.

3%

Hematology, Oncology, and Immunology

Febrile neutropenia in oncologic patients, superior vena cava syndrome, spinal cord compression, sickle cell acute chest syndrome and pain crisis, acute hemolytic transfusion reactions, and severe anaphylactoid shock.

3%

Nephrology and Urology

Acute kidney injury classification and urgent hemodialysis indications, testicular torsion, Fournier gangrene, acute urinary retention, and obstructive pyelonephritis.

3%

Surgery and Plastics

Acute appendicitis, acute bowel perforation and peritonitis, incarcerated and strangulated abdominal hernias, complex facial and extremity wound repair, and major burn resuscitation.

2%

EMS and Disaster

Prehospital emergency medical services systems, mass casualty incident management, field triage algorithms (START/SALT/JumpSTART), and hospital disaster response activation.

2%

Psychiatry

Emergency management of acute agitation, rapid tranquilization strategies, suicide risk assessment and crisis intervention, acute psychosis, and organic versus functional psychiatric differentiation.

Preparing for the OMSB Emergency Medicine (OEEM) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 65%
  • Assessment: 100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes across 21 domains: Pediatrics 10%, Resuscitation 10%, Cardiology 8%, Trauma 7%, Dental/ENT/ophthalmology/dermatology 7%, Toxicology 6%, Endocrine/metabolic 4%, Environment 4%, Administration/ethics/practice and research 4%, Gynecology 4%, Infectious disease 4%, Neurology 4%, Orthopedics 4%, Respiratory 4%, Special populations 4%, GI 3%, Hematology/oncology/immunology 3%, Nephrology/urology 3%, Surgery/plastics 3%, EMS/disaster 2%, and Psychiatry 2% (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).
  • Time limit: 2 hours 30 minutes
  • Exam / certification fees: USD 220 Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

OMSB Emergency Medicine (OEEM): Suggested Study Strategy

1Focus heavily on the top-weighted domains: Pediatrics (10%) and Resuscitation (10%) together comprise 20% of the examination, followed by Cardiology (8%), Trauma (7%), and Dental/ENT/Eye/Skin emergencies (7%).
2Master core algorithmic decision-making from Rosen's Emergency Medicine (the primary reference) and current guidelines for ACLS, PALS, ATLS, and toxicologic syndromes.
3Practice clinical vignette interpretation, ECG diagnosis, radiographic findings, arterial blood gas analyses, and time-critical medical and surgical interventions.
4Review high-acuity, low-frequency presentations across the smaller domains such as environmental emergencies, endocrine crises, obstetric/gynecologic catastrophes, and disaster triage principles.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the official name of the OMSB emergency medicine exam?

OMSB designates it the Omani Examination for Emergency Medicine (OEEM). It is part of the OMSB Occupational Classification examinations conducted for healthcare professionals applying for employment in local healthcare institutions in Oman.

How many questions are on the OEEM, and what is the time limit?

The examination comprises 100 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions administered over 2 hours and 30 minutes, according to the official OMSB August 2025 examination booklet.

What are the passing score and examination fee for the OEEM?

The passing score is 65% and the examination fee is USD 220, payable through Pearson VUE upon booking. Official results are typically emailed within 24 hours of examination completion.

Where can candidates take the Omani Examination for Emergency Medicine?

Candidates residing within Oman sit the exam at the OMSB National Test Center located at Innovation Park Muscat. Candidates outside Oman can schedule and take the exam at authorized Pearson VUE test centres worldwide.

What eligibility requirements apply to the OEEM?

Eligibility criteria are not published in the OMSB booklet, which states that the examination is conducted for emergency medicine candidates applying for jobs in local healthcare institutions. Candidates register through the OMSB Occupational Classification Testing Section before booking on Pearson VUE.

Is this practice question bank an official OMSB resource?

No. This question bank consists of independent practice questions designed by OpenExamPrep based on the publicly available OMSB OEEM examination blueprint. It is not affiliated with, sponsored by, or endorsed by OMSB.