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Free Practice Questions for OMSB Dermatology (OED)

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Key Facts: OMSB Dermatology (OED) Exam

100 MCQs

Single-best-answer questions on the OED

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1ZL1PBZb86wYqtnewev_otkQCYVcHRw9Y/view

2 h 30 min

Examination duration

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1ZL1PBZb86wYqtnewev_otkQCYVcHRw9Y/view

65%

Passing standard

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1ZL1PBZb86wYqtnewev_otkQCYVcHRw9Y/view

USD 220

Examination fee

https://omsb.gov.om/home/infoPage?id=53

14 domains

Blueprint areas specified in August 2025 OMSB booklet

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1ZL1PBZb86wYqtnewev_otkQCYVcHRw9Y/view

The OED features 100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes, costs USD 220, and requires a 65% score to pass (OMSB booklet, August 2025). It is administered via Pearson VUE worldwide and at the OMSB National Test Center in Muscat. These 100 independent practice questions cover all 14 blueprint areas, led by connective tissue disorders (10%), cutaneous infection (10%), papulosquamous diseases (10%), and skin in systemic disease (10%).

Sample OMSB Dermatology (OED) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the OMSB Dermatology (OED) exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 34-year-old woman presents with well-demarcated, hyperkeratotic, violaceous plaques on her scalp and conchal bowl. Physical examination reveals follicular plugging with follicular horn spikes visible on the underside of peeled crusts ('carpet tack' sign), central atrophy, and permanent scarring alopecia. Which diagnosis is MOST consistent with these findings?
A.Discoid lupus erythematosus
B.Psoriasis capitis
C.Seborrheic dermatitis
D.Lichen simplex chronicus
Explanation: Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE) characteristically presents with erythematous to violaceous plaques featuring adherent hyperkeratotic scaling, follicular plugging, the pathognomonic 'carpet tack' sign, and central scarring atrophy leading to cicatricial alopecia.
2A 42-year-old woman develops widespread, non-scarring, annular erythematous plaques with slight central clearing and peripheral fine scale distributed over the upper back, chest, and extensor arms following sun exposure. Serologic evaluation is strongly positive for anti-Ro/SSA antibodies. Which cutaneous lupus erythematosus variant is MOST likely?
A.Lupus erythematosus tumidus
B.Subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus
C.Chronic discoid lupus erythematosus
D.Systemic lupus erythematosus bullous eruption
Explanation: Subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus (SCLE) classically presents in sun-exposed areas as either annular/polycyclic plaques or papulosquamous lesions that heal without scarring or atrophy. Over 70-80% of patients carry anti-Ro/SSA autoantibodies.
3A 50-year-old man presents with progressive dyspnea, dry cough, painful palmar cutaneous hyperkeratotic fissures ('mechanic's hands'), and cutaneous ulcerations over the Gottron papules of his knuckles. Muscle strength and serum creatine kinase (CK) levels are entirely normal. Which myositis-specific antibody is MOST strongly associated with this clinically amyopathic presentation and carries a high risk of rapidly progressive interstitial lung disease (RPILD)?
A.Anti-Mi-2
B.Anti-Jo-1
C.Anti-MDA5
D.Anti-TIF1-gamma
Explanation: Anti-MDA5 autoantibodies are strongly associated with clinically amyopathic dermatomyositis (CADM), cutaneotegumentary ulcerations, mechanic's hands, painful palmar papules, and life-threatening rapidly progressive interstitial lung disease (RPILD) requiring aggressive early immunosuppression.
4A 48-year-old woman presents with calcinosis cutis, Raynaud phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly of the fingers, and facial telangiectasias (CREST syndrome). Her skin thickening is limited strictly to areas distal to the elbows and knees and the face. Which autoantibody profile is MOST characteristically positive in this subset of systemic sclerosis?
A.Anti-RNA polymerase III
B.Anti-topoisomerase I (anti-Scl-70)
C.Anti-Smith (anti-Sm)
D.Anti-centromere antibody
Explanation: Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis (lcSSc), historically known as CREST syndrome, is strongly linked to anti-centromere antibodies (found in 60-80% of patients) and carries a higher risk of late pulmonary arterial hypertension rather than rapidly progressive renal or pulmonary fibrosis.
5A 9-year-old boy presents with a rapidly extending, linear, indurated band with ivory-white center and an active violaceous (lilac) border extending along the left lower extremity across the knee joint, threatening joint mobility and causing limb length discrepancy. What is the FIRST-LINE medical therapy to arrest disease progression and prevent irreversible joint contracture?
A.Topical tacrolimus 0.1% ointment monotherapy
B.IV methylprednisolone pulses plus methotrexate
C.Oral hydroxychloroquine monotherapy
D.Narrowband UVB phototherapy alone
Explanation: Linear morphea crossing a joint in a child poses a severe risk of joint contractures and growth disturbances. The recommended first-line therapy to rapidly halt active inflammatory progression is pulsed systemic corticosteroids (e.g., intravenous methylprednisolone) bridged with methotrexate.
6A 38-year-old man develops painful, non-blanching palpable purpura over his lower extremities 10 days after starting cephalexin for pharyngitis. The clinical diagnosis of cutaneous small vessel vasculitis (leukocytoclastic vasculitis) is suspected. To maximize diagnostic yield on direct immunofluorescence (DIF) microscopy, what is the OPTIMAL age of the purpuric lesion selected for biopsy?
A.Lesion present for less than 24 to 48 hours
B.Fully mature crusted lesion present for 5 to 7 days
C.Resolved hyperpigmented macule present for 2 weeks
D.Perilesional normal skin biopsied after 10 days
Explanation: For direct immunofluorescence (DIF) in cutaneous leukocytoclastic vasculitis, an early active lesion present for less than 24 to 48 hours must be biopsied. Older lesions lose diagnostic immune complexes and complement due to inflammatory neutrophil degradation and tissue digestion.
7A 45-year-old woman with a history of adult-onset severe asthma, chronic allergic rhinosinusitis, and marked peripheral eosinophilia (absolute eosinophil count 3,200/µL) presents with tender subcutaneous nodules and palpable purpura on her calves. Histopathology demonstrates necrotizing extravascular granulomas with prominent eosinophilic infiltration. Which serologic marker is MOST frequently associated with this condition?
A.Anti-PR3 (c-ANCA)
B.Anti-dsDNA
C.Anti-SSA/Ro
D.Anti-MPO (p-ANCA)
Explanation: Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA, Churg-Strauss syndrome) presents with the triad of asthma, marked peripheral blood eosinophilia, and extravascular necrotizing granulomas. Approximately 40-50% of patients (particularly those with vasculitic manifestations) are positive for perinuclear ANCA (anti-MPO antibodies).
8A 2-month-old infant presents with periorbital erythematous annular plaques ('owl-eye' or 'raccoon-eye' sign) and elevated transaminases. The mother has asymptomatic Sjogren syndrome. Which complication of neonatal lupus erythematosus is IRREVERSIBLE and carries significant morbidity?
A.Cutaneous annular erythema
B.Elevated transaminases (hepatitis)
C.Congenital complete heart block
D.Thrombocytopenia
Explanation: Neonatal lupus erythematosus is caused by transplacental passage of maternal anti-Ro/SSA and anti-La/SSB antibodies. While cutaneous, hematologic, and hepatic manifestations spontaneously resolve within 6 to 9 months as maternal IgG antibodies clear, third-degree congenital complete heart block is permanent and irreversible, frequently requiring pacemaker implantation.
9A 56-year-old obese man with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with progressive, non-pitting, woody induration of the skin across his posterior neck, upper back, and shoulders without preceding infection or paraproteinemia. Biopsy reveals markedly thickened reticular dermis with separated collagen bundles and abundant mucin (hyaluronic acid). What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A.Pretibial myxedema
B.Scleredema adultorum of Buschke
C.Scleromyxedema
D.Nephrogenic systemic fibrosis
Explanation: Scleredema adultorum of Buschke (type 3, scleredema diabeticorum) occurs in patients with long-standing, poorly controlled diabetes mellitus and presents with insidious, symmetrical, woody induration on the upper back and posterior neck, characterized histologically by thickened dermal collagen bundles separated by mucopolysaccharides (hyaluronic acid).
10A 32-year-old woman presents with severe Raynaud phenomenon, swollen 'sausage' fingers (dactylitis), arthralgias, and proximal muscle weakness. Laboratory testing reveals very high-titer antibodies against U1-small nuclear ribonucleoprotein (U1-RNP), while antibodies against native dsDNA and Sm (Smith) are completely absent. What is the diagnosis?
A.Mixed connective tissue disease
B.Systemic lupus erythematosus
C.Diffuse systemic sclerosis
D.Dermatomyositis
Explanation: Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is defined by overlapping clinical features of systemic lupus erythematosus, systemic sclerosis, and polymyositis in the presence of very high titers of anti-U1-RNP autoantibodies and the notable absence of anti-Sm or anti-dsDNA antibodies.

About the OMSB Dermatology (OED) Exam

The Omani Examination for Dermatology (OED) is the Oman Medical Specialty Board occupational classification examination conducted for dermatology candidates applying for employment in local healthcare institutions across Oman. Delivered as a 100-question computer-based MCQ exam in English at the OMSB National Test Center or at Pearson VUE centres worldwide, the test assesses clinical readiness and patient safety. This bank provides independent OpenExamPrep practice questions organized across the 14 blueprint domains; it is not an official OMSB resource.

Exam sponsor: Oman Medical Specialty Board (OMSB), Occupational Classification Testing Section. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes across 14 domains: Connective tissue disorders 10%; Cutaneous infection 10%; Papulosquamous 10%; Skin in systemic disease 10%; Benign and malignant tumors 8%; Cutaneous drug reactions 8%; Dermatosurgery and cosmetics 8%; Autoimmune and hereditary blistering 7%; Pediatric dermatology 7%; Skin appendage disorders 7%; Disorders of melanocytes 6%; Photodermatoses 4%; Neurocutaneous 3%; and Pregnancy dermatoses 2% (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).

Time Limit

2 hours 30 minutes

Passing Score

65%

Exam / Certification Fees

USD 220

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

10%

Connective tissue disorders

Lupus erythematosus (CLE, SLE), dermatomyositis, systemic sclerosis, localized scleroderma (morphea), mixed connective tissue disease, and cutaneous vasculitides.

10%

Cutaneous infection

Bacterial pyodermas, mycobacterial infections (tuberculosis, leprosy), viral infections (herpesviruses, HPV, poxviruses), fungal/deep mycoses, and parasitic infestations.

10%

Papulosquamous

Psoriasis and its variants, lichen planus, pityriasis rosea, seborrheic dermatitis, pityriasis rubra pilaris, parapsoriasis, and related erythematosquamous disorders.

10%

Skin in systemic disease

Cutaneous markers of internal malignancy, endocrine and nutritional diseases, sarcoidosis, renal and hepatic dermatoses, and amyloidosis.

8%

Benign and malignant tumors

Basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma, cutaneous lymphomas, benign epithelial and mesenchymal neoplasms, and cysts.

8%

Cutaneous drug reactions

Severe cutaneous adverse reactions (SJS/TEN, DRESS, AGEP), fixed drug eruptions, lichenoid and exanthematous drug eruptions, and drug causality assessment.

8%

Dermatosurgery and cosmetics

Local anesthesia, biopsy techniques, surgical excision margins, reconstructive flap/graft principles, electrosurgery, cryosurgery, and aesthetic lasers and injectables.

7%

Autoimmune and hereditary blistering

Pemphigus vulgaris and foliaceus, bullous pemphigoid, mucous membrane pemphigoid, dermatitis herpetiformis, and epidermolysis bullosa subtypes.

7%

Pediatric dermatology

Neonatal dermatoses, vascular malformations, infantile hemangiomas, genodermatoses (ichthyoses, Darier disease), and childhood atopic dermatitis.

7%

Skin appendage disorders

Acne vulgaris, rosacea, hidradenitis suppurativa, non-scarring and scarring alopecias, and nail apparatus pathology.

6%

Disorders of melanocytes

Vitiligo, melasma, post-inflammatory pigmentation, congenital and acquired melanocytic nevi, dysplastic nevi, and dermal melanocytosis.

4%

Photodermatoses

Polymorphous light eruption, solar urticaria, cutaneous porphyrias (PCT, EPP), chronic actinic dermatitis, and photoprotection principles.

3%

Neurocutaneous

Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, tuberous sclerosis complex, Sturge-Weber syndrome, and related phakomatoses.

2%

Pregnancy dermatoses

Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy (PUPPP), pemphigoid gestationis, intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, and atopic eruption of pregnancy.

Preparing for the OMSB Dermatology (OED) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 65%
  • Assessment: 100 single-best-answer MCQs in 2 hours 30 minutes across 14 domains: Connective tissue disorders 10%; Cutaneous infection 10%; Papulosquamous 10%; Skin in systemic disease 10%; Benign and malignant tumors 8%; Cutaneous drug reactions 8%; Dermatosurgery and cosmetics 8%; Autoimmune and hereditary blistering 7%; Pediatric dermatology 7%; Skin appendage disorders 7%; Disorders of melanocytes 6%; Photodermatoses 4%; Neurocutaneous 3%; and Pregnancy dermatoses 2% (each may vary by up to 5 percentage points).
  • Time limit: 2 hours 30 minutes
  • Exam / certification fees: USD 220 Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

OMSB Dermatology (OED): Suggested Study Strategy

1Prioritize high-yield domains: Connective tissue disorders (10%), cutaneous infections (10%), papulosquamous diseases (10%), and skin in systemic disease (10%) together comprise 40% of the examination.
2Review dermatopathology and clinical morphology correlation thoroughly, including direct immunofluorescence patterns in blistering diseases, interface dermatitis in lupus and dermatomyositis, and histopathologic criteria for malignant neoplasms.
3Master emergency dermatologic scenarios, including severe cutaneous adverse reactions (SCARs such as SJS/TEN and DRESS), erythroderma management, necrotizing fasciitis, and anaphylaxis protocols.
4Base revision on the standard references cited in the OMSB blueprint: Fitzpatrick's Dermatology in General Medicine, Bolognia's Dermatology, and Andrews' Diseases of the Skin.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the official name of the OMSB dermatology exam?

OMSB designates this exam the Omani Examination for Dermatology (OED). It is an occupational classification examination conducted for dermatology candidates applying for employment in local healthcare institutions in Oman.

How many questions are on the OED, and what is the time limit?

The OED consists of 100 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions administered over 2 hours and 30 minutes, according to OMSB's August 2025 booklet.

What is the passing score and fee for the OED?

The passing score is 65% and the examination fee is USD 220 paid through Pearson VUE. Candidates receive results via email within 24 hours of completing the test.

Who is eligible to take the OED exam?

Eligibility criteria are classified as not published in the official booklet. Candidates must register through the OMSB Occupational Classification Testing Section before scheduling an appointment on Pearson VUE.

Where can candidates take the OED exam?

Candidates residing in Oman take the exam at the OMSB National Test Center located at Innovation Park Muscat. Candidates residing outside Oman can take it at authorized Pearson VUE test centres worldwide.

Is this practice question bank an official OMSB resource?

No. This question bank provides independent OpenExamPrep practice questions on the 14 topic areas published in the OMSB examination blueprint. For official curriculum guidelines and examination booking, visit omsb.gov.om and pearsonvue.com/omsb.