Free ARDMS Abdomen (AB) Exam Flashcards

Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the RDMS Abdomen (AB) Specialty Certification Exam. See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.

50 Flashcards
20 Topics
100% Free
TermClick to flip

What is the normal liver span measured at the midclavicular line (MCL)?

Tap to reveal definition
Card 1 of 50Liver Anatomy

Filter by Topic

Jump to Card

About These ARDMS Abdomen (AB) Flashcards

These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the RDMS Abdomen (AB) Specialty Certification Exam. Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.

Topics Covered

Liver Anatomy3 cards
Biliary System3 cards
Pancreas & Spleen2 cards
Kidney & Urinary3 cards
Vasculature2 cards
Doppler & Perfusion2 cards
Liver Pathology4 cards
Biliary Pathology4 cards
Renal Pathology & Bosniak4 cards
Vascular Abnormality Signs4 cards
Trauma & Transplant3 cards
Abdominal Wall & Hernias2 cards
Physics & Instrumentation1 cards
Imaging Artifacts1 cards
Transducer Selection1 cards
Doppler Modes1 cards
Clinical Care & Prep3 cards
Measurements & Procedures3 cards
Patient Communication2 cards
Consent & Safety2 cards

Complete Flashcard Reference

Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.

What is the normal liver span measured at the midclavicular line (MCL)?

13-15.5 cm is normal. A span greater than 15.5 cm meets the sonographic threshold for hepatomegaly.

Which liver segment is typically spared in cirrhosis, and why does this matter sonographically?

The caudate lobe (Couinaud segment I), because it has an independent vascular supply. Relative caudate hypertrophy compared to a shrunken right lobe is a classic cirrhosis clue.

What does the ligamentum teres (round ligament) represent, and where is it seen?

The fibrosed remnant of the fetal umbilical vein, seen as an echogenic focus in the left intersegmental fissure (free edge of the falciform ligament), which separates the medial (segment IV) and lateral segments of the left lobe.

How is the common bile duct (CBD) measured, and what is its normal diameter?

Measured inner-wall-to-inner-wall; normal is under 6-7 mm. Diameter can normally increase up to about 10 mm after cholecystectomy.

How does normal CBD diameter change with age after 60?

Add roughly 1 mm per decade of life after age 60 - a diameter that would be borderline-abnormal in a 40-year-old can be normal in an 80-year-old.

What is the normal gallbladder wall thickness, and when should thickening raise concern?

Under 3 mm is normal when the gallbladder is distended. Thickening beyond this in a properly fasted patient raises suspicion for cholecystitis or other GB pathology.

What is the normal upper limit for the main pancreatic duct diameter?

Under 2-3 mm. A duct dilated beyond this raises concern for obstruction, chronic pancreatitis, or a pancreatic head/periampullary mass.

What splenic length defines splenomegaly?

A spleen measuring over 12-13 cm in length is enlarged; normal splenic length is under 12 cm.

What is the normal adult renal length range?

9-12 cm is the normal range for adult kidney length. A size discrepancy greater than about 2 cm between the two kidneys is abnormal and warrants further evaluation.

How does normal renal cortex echogenicity compare to the liver?

Normal renal cortex is hypoechoic (less echogenic) relative to the liver. Cortex that is iso- or hyperechoic to the liver suggests medical renal disease.

Which part of the kidney is normally the most echogenic, and why?

The renal sinus, because it is composed largely of fat surrounding the collecting system and vessels, and fat is highly echogenic on ultrasound.

At what abdominal aortic diameter is elective surgical repair typically indicated in men versus women?

5.5 cm in men and 5.0 cm in women - the lower threshold in women reflects their higher rupture risk at smaller diameters.

What is the normal direction of portal venous flow called, and what does reversal indicate?

Normal portal flow is hepatopetal (toward the liver). Reversed, hepatofugal flow is abnormal and is classically seen with portal hypertension.

What is the normal hepatic vein waveform pattern, and what does a flattened waveform suggest?

A triphasic waveform reflecting transmitted right atrial pressure changes through the cardiac cycle. A flattened or monophasic pattern suggests decreased liver compliance, such as from cirrhosis or fibrosis.

What is the normal resistive index (RI) range for the main renal artery, and what value is elevated?

Normal renal RI is under 0.7. An RI over 0.7 is abnormal and can indicate intrinsic renal disease, obstruction, or - in a transplant - rejection.

What is the classic sonographic appearance of hepatic steatosis (fatty liver)?

Diffusely increased (hyperechoic) parenchymal echogenicity compared to the renal cortex, with poor sound penetration and beam attenuation into the deeper liver and diaphragm.

What sonographic triad characterizes cirrhosis?

A small, nodular, coarse-echotexture liver with a shrunken right lobe and compensatory caudate/left lobe hypertrophy, plus signs of portal hypertension such as ascites and splenomegaly.

What is the classic sonographic appearance of a hepatic hemangioma?

A well-defined, homogeneously hyperechoic mass - the most common benign liver tumor, typically small and asymptomatic.

What causes Budd-Chiari syndrome, and what is its sonographic hallmark?

Thrombosis or obstruction of the hepatic veins (or IVC), causing impaired venous outflow. Sonography shows absent, reversed, or turbulent hepatic vein flow with an enlarged, congested liver.

What does the WES sign indicate, and what are its three components?

It indicates a gallbladder packed with stones: the GB Wall, a bright reflector Echo from the stone surface, and posterior acoustic Shadowing, with little to no visible bile between them.

What is a sonographic Murphy sign, and what does it indicate?

Focal tenderness elicited when the transducer is pressed directly over a sonographically visualized gallbladder. A positive sign strongly supports acute cholecystitis.

What is the Courvoisier sign, and what does it classically suggest?

A palpable, painless, distended gallbladder in a jaundiced patient - classically associated with a malignant distal biliary/pancreatic head obstruction rather than gallstone disease.

What is a Klatskin tumor, and where does it occur?

A cholangiocarcinoma arising at the biliary hilum (confluence of right and left hepatic ducts), causing intrahepatic ductal dilation without gallbladder or extrahepatic CBD dilation.

What distinguishes a Bosniak I renal cyst from a Bosniak II cyst?

Bosniak I is a simple, anechoic, thin-walled benign cyst with no septa or calcification. Bosniak II is minimally complex - it may have a few thin septa or fine calcification - but is still considered benign.

What does a Bosniak IIF classification mean for patient management?

IIF ('F' for follow-up) describes a cyst with slightly more complexity than category II. It requires periodic follow-up imaging rather than immediate intervention, since a small percentage prove malignant over time.

How does Bosniak III differ from Bosniak IV in required management?

Bosniak III is indeterminate/complex and warrants surgical evaluation because a substantial proportion are malignant. Bosniak IV is clearly malignant, showing enhancing soft-tissue components, and is treated as cancer.

What is the classic sonographic appearance of a renal angiomyolipoma (AML), and why does it matter?

A small, well-defined, uniformly echogenic mass due to its fat content. The echogenic appearance helps distinguish it from a solid renal cell carcinoma, though overlap can occur.

What Doppler artifact occurs when velocity exceeds the Nyquist limit, and how is it corrected?

Aliasing - a wraparound artifact where high velocities wrap to the opposite end of the color or spectral scale. Correct it by increasing the scale/PRF, shifting the baseline, lowering the transducer frequency, or increasing the Doppler angle.

What sonographic finding suggests acute renal vein thrombosis?

An enlarged, edematous kidney with absent or reversed venous flow on Doppler; arterial waveforms may show elevated resistance or reversed diastolic flow.

What is Nutcracker syndrome, and which vessel compresses the left renal vein?

Compression of the left renal vein between the aorta and the superior mesenteric artery (SMA), causing dilation proximal to the compression and symptoms such as hematuria and flank pain.

What sonographic findings suggest portal hypertension?

Splenomegaly, ascites, portosystemic varices, a dilated and often non-compressible portal vein, and possible hepatofugal (reversed) portal flow.

What four views make up a standard FAST exam, and what is it screening for?

Perihepatic (Morrison's pouch), perisplenic, pelvic, and cardiac (subxiphoid) views - screening for free intraperitoneal or pericardial fluid after trauma.

Why is Morrison's pouch usually the first place free fluid accumulates in a supine trauma patient?

It is the most dependent potential space in the peritoneal cavity in the supine position (the hepatorenal recess), so even small volumes of free fluid pool there first.

What Doppler finding in a transplanted kidney raises concern for acute rejection?

A rising resistive index (RI), often with graft swelling and loss of corticomedullary differentiation, compared to the patient's prior baseline scan.

Where does an inguinal hernia occur relative to the inguinal ligament?

At or above the level of the inguinal ligament, distinguishing it from a femoral hernia, which occurs below the ligament.

What maneuver helps sonographically provoke and confirm a suspected abdominal wall hernia?

The Valsalva maneuver - having the patient bear down increases intra-abdominal pressure, pushing bowel or fat through the defect and making the hernia bulge more visible.

Why is a curvilinear (curved array) transducer preferred for general abdominal imaging over a linear transducer?

Its lower operating frequency and wider, diverging field of view give better penetration for deep abdominal organs, whereas linear transducers run at higher frequency and suit superficial structures.

What causes a comet-tail (ring-down) artifact in gallbladder imaging, and what condition does it suggest?

Reverberation off small crystalline or cholesterol deposits in the gallbladder wall; it is the classic sign of adenomyomatosis.

A patient with a large body habitus has poor image penetration on abdominal ultrasound - what adjustment improves visualization?

Lower the transducer frequency to increase depth of penetration, accepting a tradeoff in resolution; harmonic or compound imaging can also help reduce noise.

What is the key tradeoff between color Doppler and power Doppler?

Color Doppler shows flow direction but is angle-dependent and prone to aliasing. Power Doppler is more sensitive for detecting low-flow states but does not display flow direction.

What patient preparation is required before a biliary/upper abdominal ultrasound, and why?

NPO (nothing by mouth) for 6-8 hours before the exam. Fasting lets the gallbladder distend with bile for better evaluation and reduces bowel gas from digestion that could obscure the pancreas and other structures.

Why is a full urinary bladder needed before a pelvic or renal ultrasound?

A distended bladder acts as an acoustic window, displacing bowel gas out of the pelvis and improving visualization of pelvic organs and the distal ureters.

Which lab values should a sonographer correlate with hepatobiliary and renal ultrasound findings?

Liver function tests such as bilirubin, AST/ALT, and alkaline phosphatase for hepatobiliary studies; BUN and creatinine for renal studies - abnormal labs help focus and interpret the scan.

What is the ideal Doppler angle of insonation for accurate velocity measurement, and why?

60 degrees or less. Beyond this, small errors in angle measurement cause increasingly large errors in the calculated velocity, since the Doppler equation depends on the cosine of the angle.

Where should the pulsed-wave Doppler sample volume (gate) be placed for an accurate spectral waveform?

Within the lumen of the vessel being interrogated, ideally centered in the flow stream, to avoid wall artifact and get a representative velocity measurement.

What must be verified immediately before an image-guided needle procedure such as a biopsy or drainage?

Correct patient identity, procedure site, and laterality, along with documented informed consent - a pre-procedure 'time-out' confirms these before the needle is placed.

What federal law governs protection of a patient's health information during and after a sonography exam?

HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) - it protects the privacy and security of patient health information and restricts who can access or share exam findings and records.

Why might a sonographer scan a patient in multiple positions, such as supine, decubitus, and upright, during an abdominal exam?

Repositioning can move bowel gas out of the way, confirm that mobile debris (like sludge) redistributes with gravity rather than staying fixed, and help distinguish gravity-dependent findings from true fixed masses.

What must a sonographer obtain before performing an invasive procedure such as an ultrasound-guided biopsy?

Documented informed consent - the patient or authorized representative must be informed of the procedure's risks, benefits, and alternatives before it is performed.

What should be assessed immediately after an ultrasound-guided procedure, such as a biopsy or paracentesis?

The patient should be monitored for complications such as bleeding, hematoma formation, or new pain, and a post-procedure image is often obtained to document the needle path and rule out immediate complications.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the ARDMS Abdomen (AB) exam and how much time do I get?

The AB exam has approximately 165 multiple-choice questions with a 3-hour (180-minute) time limit. Questions are organized into four task-based domains: Anatomy, Perfusion, and Function (30%); Pathology, Vascular Abnormalities, Trauma, and Postop (42%); Abdominal Physics (8%); and Clinical Care, Practice, and QA (20%).

What is the passing score for the RDMS Abdomen exam?

You need a scaled score of 555 or higher on ARDMS's 300-700 point scale. This is not a straight percentage - ARDMS statistically scales scores across different exam forms to keep difficulty comparable across test dates, so 555 does not correspond to one fixed raw percentage.

What is the pass rate for the ARDMS Abdomen exam?

Per ARDMS/Inteleos published 2023 data, the first-time pass rate was 72%, with an overall pass rate (including retakes) of 64%. Pass rates can shift year to year as ARDMS updates exam forms, so always check the current Candidate Information Bulletin for the latest figures.

What are the prerequisites for taking the AB exam?

You must pass the SPI (Sonography Principles and Instrumentation) exam and the AB exam within five years of each other, in either order, plus meet one of ARDMS's eligibility pathways (graduate of an accredited sonography program, degree plus qualifying clinical experience, or equivalent documented clinical hours). No employer sponsorship is required.

How long must I wait to retake the AB exam if I fail?

ARDMS requires a flat 60-day wait before retaking the AB exam after any failed attempt. There is no escalating penalty for multiple failures the way some other certifying bodies structure retakes, and there is no cap on the total number of attempts allowed.

How do I keep my RDMS Abdomen certification active?

RDMS credentials must be renewed every 3 years by completing 30 continuing medical education (CME) credits during that cycle through ARDMS-approved providers such as SDMS or AIUM, or by retaking the specialty exam.

Same family resources

Explore More ARDMS Certifications

Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.