200+ Free RDMS OB/GYN Practice Questions

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What is the normal sonographic appearance of the endometrium during the menstrual phase?

Thick and hyperechoic

Thin and hyperechoic line

Thick and hypoechoic

Trilaminar appearance

to track

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: RDMS OB/GYN Exam

170

Exam Questions

ARDMS

555

Passing Score (scaled)

ARDMS (300-700 scale)

3 hrs

Exam Duration

ARDMS

$275

Specialty Exam Fee

ARDMS

37%

2nd/3rd Trimester OB

Largest domain

10 years

Certification Validity

CME required

The RDMS OB/GYN exam has 170 questions in 3 hours with a passing scaled score of 555 (~70%). Five domains: Second/Third Trimester OB (37%), Protocols & Procedures (24%), Gynecology (19%), First Trimester OB (12%), and Physics & Instrumentation (8%). Requires SPI exam + eligible pathway. $275 specialty exam fee. 10-year certification with CME.

Sample RDMS OB/GYN Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your RDMS OB/GYN exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 200+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1What is the normal sonographic appearance of the endometrium during the menstrual phase?

A.Thick and hyperechoic

B.Thin and hyperechoic line

C.Thick and hypoechoic

D.Trilaminar appearance

Explanation: During the menstrual phase (days 1-5), the endometrium appears as a thin, echogenic line measuring 1-4 mm due to sloughing of the functionalis layer. The thick hyperechoic appearance describes the secretory phase, while the trilaminar appearance is characteristic of the late proliferative phase around ovulation.

2Which ligament extends from the lateral aspect of the uterus to the pelvic sidewall and contains the uterine artery?

A.Round ligament

B.Broad ligament

C.Cardinal ligament

D.Uterosacral ligament

Explanation: The cardinal (Mackenrodt) ligament extends from the lateral cervix and upper vagina to the pelvic sidewall and contains the uterine artery and veins. The broad ligament is a peritoneal fold, the round ligament extends anteriorly to the labia majora, and the uterosacral ligaments extend posteriorly to the sacrum.

3In a premenopausal patient, what is the normal maximum anteroposterior diameter of the endometrium during the secretory phase?

A.4-6 mm

B.7-10 mm

C.12-16 mm

D.20-25 mm

Explanation: During the secretory phase, the endometrium normally measures 12-16 mm in maximum thickness due to progesterone-induced glandular secretion and edema. A measurement greater than 16 mm is generally considered thickened in premenopausal women and warrants further evaluation.

4Which ovarian structure is identified sonographically as a small cystic structure typically measuring 2-3 cm that may contain a hyperechoic mural nodule (cumulus oophorus) at ovulation?

A.Corpus luteum cyst

B.Follicular cyst

C.Theca lutein cyst

D.Paraovarian cyst

Explanation: The corpus luteum cyst forms after ovulation and typically measures 2-3 cm with thick, crenulated walls. The cumulus oophorus may be visible as a small hyperechoic mural nodule. These cysts demonstrate prominent peripheral vascularity on Doppler (ring of fire). Follicular cysts are simple and thin-walled, while theca lutein cysts are associated with high hCG levels.

5What is the normal position of the ovaries relative to the uterus in the adult female pelvis?

A.Anterior to the uterus

B.Posterior and lateral to the uterus

C.Superior to the uterine fundus

D.Within the uterine cornua

Explanation: The ovaries are typically located posterior and lateral to the uterus, within the ovarian fossa on the lateral pelvic sidewall. Their position can vary with uterine position and patient positioning. The ovaries are suspended by the mesovarium portion of the broad ligament.

6During which phase of the menstrual cycle does the endometrium demonstrate the classic "trilaminar" or "three-line" sign?

A.Early proliferative phase

B.Late proliferative phase

C.Early secretory phase

D.Menstrual phase

Explanation: The trilaminar sign appears during the late proliferative phase (periovulatory period) when estrogen stimulation causes the functionalis layers to become hypoechoic, flanking the echogenic central interface. This finding indicates a receptive endometrium and typically occurs around days 14-16 of a 28-day cycle.

7What is the normal postmenopausal endometrial thickness threshold above which further evaluation is typically recommended?

A.3 mm

B.5 mm

C.8 mm

D.12 mm

Explanation: In postmenopausal women with bleeding, an endometrial thickness greater than 5 mm generally requires further evaluation (such as sonohysterography or endometrial biopsy) to exclude endometrial hyperplasia or carcinoma. In asymptomatic postmenopausal women, thresholds up to 8 mm may be acceptable depending on clinical context.

8The uterine artery typically branches from which major vessel?

A.Ovarian artery

B.Internal iliac (hypogastric) artery

C.External iliac artery

D.Inferior mesenteric artery

Explanation: The uterine artery arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac (hypogastric) artery. It crosses superior to the ureter approximately 2 cm lateral to the cervix ("water under the bridge"), then ascends along the lateral uterine margin to anastomose with the ovarian artery at the uterine cornu.

9What is the most common benign gynecologic tumor in women of reproductive age?

A.Ovarian cyst

B.Endometrial polyp

C.Uterine leiomyoma (fibroid)

D.Cervical polyp

Explanation: Uterine leiomyomas (fibroids) are the most common benign gynecologic tumors, affecting 20-30% of women of reproductive age. They arise from smooth muscle cells of the myometrium and are hormonally responsive, typically enlarging during pregnancy and regressing after menopause.

10Which sonographic finding is characteristic of a submucosal leiomyoma?

A.Uterine enlargement with heterogeneous myometrium

B.Well-defined hypoechoic mass distorting the endometrial cavity

C.Cystic adnexal mass separate from the ovary

D.Diffuse uterine enlargement with indistinct endometrium

Explanation: Submucosal leiomyomas are located just beneath the endometrium and project into the uterine cavity. Sonographically, they appear as well-defined, typically hypoechoic masses that distort the endometrial cavity. They are the most likely type to cause abnormal uterine bleeding due to their location.

About the RDMS OB/GYN Exam

The RDMS OB/GYN exam validates expertise in obstetric and gynecologic sonography including first trimester evaluation, second/third trimester fetal assessment, gynecologic pelvic anatomy, scanning protocols, and ultrasound physics. It is the most popular ARDMS specialty exam.

Questions

170 scored questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

Scaled score 555 (~70%)

Exam Fee

$275 (ARDMS (American Registry for Diagnostic Medical Sonography) / Pearson VUE)

RDMS OB/GYN Exam Content Outline

37%

Second/Third Trimester Obstetrics

Fetal biometry, fetal anatomy, fetal anomalies, multiple gestations, placenta, amniotic fluid, biophysical profile

19%

Gynecology - Pelvic Anatomy

Normal pelvic anatomy, uterine pathology, ovarian pathology, adnexal masses, postmenopausal findings

24%

Protocols and Procedures

Scanning techniques, patient care, measurement standards, documentation, first trimester screening, safety

12%

First Trimester Obstetrics

Early pregnancy, embryology, CRL measurement, NT screening, viability assessment, ectopic pregnancy

Physics and Instrumentation

Doppler principles, hemodynamics, image optimization, artifacts, transducer physics, bioeffects

How to Pass the RDMS OB/GYN Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Scaled score 555 (~70%)
Exam length: 170 questions
Time limit: 3 hours
Exam fee: $275

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

RDMS OB/GYN Study Tips from Top Performers

1Focus on Second/Third Trimester OB (37%) — master fetal biometry (BPD, HC, AC, FL), anatomy survey, and anomaly recognition

2Study Protocols & Procedures (24%) — measurement standards, patient care, documentation, and safety considerations

3Know gynecologic pathology: fibroids, adenomyosis, ovarian cysts, PCOS, endometrial pathology, and adnexal masses

4Master first trimester concepts: CRL measurement, NT screening criteria, viability assessment, and ectopic pregnancy recognition

5Understand Doppler principles: umbilical artery, uterine artery, and MCA waveforms and their clinical significance

6Review ALARA principles and bioeffects — thermal and mechanical indices for safe ultrasound practice

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the RDMS OB/GYN exam?

RDMS OB/GYN is an ARDMS specialty exam that validates expertise in obstetric and gynecologic sonography. It covers fetal assessment, pelvic anatomy evaluation, scanning protocols, and ultrasound physics. It is the most popular RDMS specialty.

How many questions are on the RDMS OB/GYN exam?

The exam has 170 questions in 3 hours. The passing score is a scaled score of 555 (approximately 70%) on a 300-700 scale. Administered at Pearson VUE test centers.

What are the prerequisites for the RDMS OB/GYN exam?

You must pass the SPI (Sonography Principles & Instrumentation) exam first, then complete an eligible pathway: graduate of a CAAHEP/ABHES accredited sonography program or clinical experience route. Submit application and $275 fee to ARDMS.

What is the hardest part of the RDMS OB/GYN exam?

Second/Third Trimester Obstetrics (37%) is both the largest and most challenging domain. It requires mastery of fetal biometry (BPD, HC, AC, FL), fetal anomaly recognition, placental abnormalities, and amniotic fluid assessment.

How should I prepare for the RDMS OB/GYN exam?

Plan for 150-250 hours of study over 8-12 weeks. Focus on Second/Third Trimester OB (37%) and Protocols & Procedures (24%) — together 61% of the exam. Master fetal biometry measurements, anomaly detection, and scanning technique standards.