Georgia CNA Exam Flashcards

Q: How many questions are on the Georgia CNA written exam and what score passes?

The Georgia CNA written exam has 60 multiple-choice questions in the NNAAP format. You need at least 70% (42 of 60 correct) to pass.

Q: What format is the Georgia CNA competency exam?

It has two parts: a 60-question written (or oral) test in 90 minutes, and a clinical skills evaluation of 5 randomly selected skills, including hand washing.

Q: How do I register for the Georgia CNA exam?

Finish a Georgia DCH-approved 85-hour training program, then register and schedule through the state's test vendor, Credentia, at credentia.com/test-takers/ga.

Q: What is the Georgia CNA retake policy?

There is no long mandatory wait between attempts; you reschedule and retest. You get a maximum of 3 attempts within 1 year of finishing training, then must retrain.

Q: How do I keep my Georgia Nurse Aide Registry listing active?

Work at least 8 paid nurse aide hours under a licensed nurse every 24 months and renew with Alliant Health Solutions. There is no grace period.

Question 1

Normal Adult Oral Temperature

Accepted Answer

The normal adult oral temperature averages 98.6 F (37 C), with a typical range of 97.6-99.6 F. Report a temperature of 100.4 F or higher (fever) or below 95 F (hypothermia) to the nurse, as both signal infection or instability.

Question 2

Normal Adult Pulse (Heart Rate)

Accepted Answer

A normal resting adult pulse is 60-100 beats per minute. Below 60 is bradycardia; above 100 is tachycardia. Count the radial pulse for a full minute if it is irregular, and report rates outside the normal range or a new irregular rhythm.

Question 3

Normal Adult Respiratory Rate

Accepted Answer

Normal adult respirations are 12-20 breaths per minute. Count respirations without telling the resident, so they breathe naturally. Report fewer than 12, more than 20, labored breathing, or noisy/irregular breathing to the nurse promptly.

Question 4

Normal Adult Blood Pressure

Accepted Answer

A normal adult blood pressure is below 120/80 mmHg. Hypertension begins at 130/80 or higher; readings at or below 90/60 indicate hypotension. Report any reading above 140/90 or below 90/60, and recheck on the opposite arm if a value seems abnormal.

Question 5

Normal Oxygen Saturation (SpO2)

Accepted Answer

Normal pulse oximetry (SpO2) is 95-100%. Readings below 90% indicate hypoxia and must be reported immediately. Cold fingers, nail polish, or poor circulation can falsely lower the reading.

Question 6

Hand Hygiene (Hand Washing)

Accepted Answer

Hand washing is the single most important way to prevent the spread of infection. Wet hands, apply soap, and rub all surfaces for at least 20 seconds, keeping fingertips pointed down. Use a paper towel to dry and to turn off the faucet so clean hands stay clean.

Question 7

Standard Precautions

Accepted Answer

Standard Precautions treat all blood, body fluids, secretions, and broken skin as potentially infectious for every resident, regardless of diagnosis. They include hand hygiene, wearing PPE when contact with body fluids is expected, and safe handling of soiled linen and sharps.

Question 8

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

Accepted Answer

PPE is the barrier clothing that protects the aide and resident from infection: gloves, gown, mask, and eye protection (goggles or face shield). Choose PPE based on the task and the type of exposure anticipated.

Question 9

PPE Donning Order (Putting On)

Accepted Answer

Put PPE on in this order: gown first, then mask or respirator, then goggles or face shield, then gloves last. Gloves go on last so they cover the cuffs of the gown.

Question 10

PPE Doffing Order (Taking Off)

Accepted Answer

Remove PPE in this order: gloves first (the most contaminated), then goggles or face shield, then gown, then mask last. Perform hand hygiene immediately after removing all PPE to avoid self-contamination.

Question 11

Airborne Precautions

Accepted Answer

Airborne Precautions are used for tiny pathogens that stay suspended in air, such as tuberculosis, measles, and chickenpox. They require a negative-pressure private room and a fitted N95 respirator rather than a surgical mask.

Question 12

Droplet vs. Contact Precautions

Accepted Answer

Droplet Precautions (flu, pertussis, meningitis) require a surgical mask within about 6 feet because droplets fall quickly. Contact Precautions (C. diff, MRSA, scabies) require gown and gloves for any contact; C. diff also needs soap-and-water hand washing because alcohol gel does not kill its spores.

Question 13

Fall Prevention

Accepted Answer

Prevent falls by keeping the bed in the lowest position with wheels locked, the call light within reach, the floor dry and uncluttered, and non-skid footwear on the resident. Answer call lights promptly, since many falls happen when residents try to reach the bathroom alone.

Question 14

Restraint Alternatives

Accepted Answer

Restraints are a last resort and require a doctor's order. Aides should first try alternatives: frequent toileting, bed/chair alarms, repositioning, increased supervision, and meeting the resident's needs. Restraints can cause injury, pressure injuries, and loss of dignity.

Question 15

Fire Safety: RACE

Accepted Answer

RACE is the response sequence in a fire: Rescue anyone in immediate danger, sound the Alarm, Confine the fire by closing doors and windows, and Extinguish or Evacuate. Protecting residents always comes before fighting the fire.

Question 16

Fire Extinguisher: PASS

Accepted Answer

PASS is the method for using a fire extinguisher: Pull the pin, Aim the nozzle at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from side to side. Aim at the base, not the flames, to cut off the fuel source.

Question 17

Gait Belt (Transfer Belt)

Accepted Answer

A gait belt is a safety device fastened snugly around the resident's waist over clothing to give the aide a secure hold during transfers and ambulation. Grasp the belt with an underhand grip; never lift a resident by pulling on their arms or under their armpits.

Question 18

Proper Body Mechanics

Accepted Answer

Body mechanics is using the body efficiently to prevent injury: keep a wide base of support with feet apart, bend at the knees and hips (not the waist), keep the load close to your body, and push or pull rather than lift. Lift with your legs, not your back.

Question 19

Fowler's Position

Accepted Answer

Fowler's position is sitting upright with the head of the bed raised 45-60 degrees (high Fowler's is 60-90 degrees). It eases breathing and is used for eating, and for residents with heart or respiratory conditions.

Question 20

Supine, Prone, and Lateral Positions

Accepted Answer

Supine is lying flat on the back; prone is lying flat on the stomach with the head turned to one side; lateral is lying on one side. Lateral positioning with pillows relieves pressure on the back and is common for repositioning bedbound residents.

Question 21

Repositioning Every 2 Hours

Accepted Answer

Reposition bedbound residents at least every 2 hours and chairbound residents at least every hour. Regular position changes relieve pressure over bony areas, restore circulation, and are the most important step in preventing pressure injuries.

Question 22

Pressure Injury (Pressure Ulcer)

Accepted Answer

A pressure injury is damage to skin and tissue from unrelieved pressure, usually over bony areas like the heels, sacrum (tailbone), hips, and elbows. Early signs are a reddened area that does not fade when pressure is removed; report it to the nurse at once.

Question 23

Activities of Daily Living (ADLs)

Accepted Answer

ADLs are the basic self-care tasks of daily life: bathing, dressing, grooming, oral care, toileting, transferring, and eating. CNAs assist with ADLs while encouraging residents to do as much as they safely can to preserve independence.

Question 24

Dressing the Affected (Weak) Side First

Accepted Answer

When dressing a resident with a weak or paralyzed side, put clothing onto the affected (weak) arm or leg first and remove it from the strong side first. This protects the joint and makes dressing easier and less painful.

Question 25

Perineal Care

Accepted Answer

Perineal care is cleaning the genital and anal area, always washing from front to back (clean to dirty) to prevent spreading bacteria toward the urethra. For an uncircumcised male, gently retract the foreskin to clean, then return it to its original position.

Question 26

Oral Care for the Unconscious Resident

Accepted Answer

Give oral care to unconscious residents at least every 2 hours to keep the mouth moist and clean. Turn the head to the side to let fluid drain and prevent aspiration, use only a small amount of fluid, and never put your fingers in the mouth.

Question 27

Safe Water Temperature for Bathing

Accepted Answer

Check bath and shower water temperature before the resident enters; it should be comfortably warm, generally not exceeding about 105 F. Older residents have thin, fragile skin and reduced sensation, so water that is too hot can cause burns quickly.

Question 28

Preventing Aspiration During Feeding

Accepted Answer

To prevent aspiration (food or fluid entering the lungs), seat the resident upright at 90 degrees, offer small bites, alternate solids and liquids, and keep them upright for 30 minutes after eating. Report coughing, choking, or pocketing food to the nurse.

Question 29

Therapeutic Communication

Accepted Answer

Therapeutic communication uses techniques such as active listening, open-ended questions, and silence to encourage residents to express feelings. Face the resident at eye level, avoid interrupting, and never give false reassurance like "everything will be fine."

Question 30

Communicating with a Resident Who Has Dementia

Accepted Answer

Use short, simple sentences, ask one question at a time, and approach from the front to avoid startling. Stay calm, use a gentle tone, redirect rather than argue or correct, and allow extra time for the resident to respond.

Question 31

Communicating with an Aphasic Resident

Accepted Answer

Aphasia is loss of the ability to speak or understand language, often after a stroke. Use yes/no questions, picture or communication boards, gestures, and patience. Speak normally (not louder), give the resident time, and never rush or finish their sentences.

Question 32

Nonverbal Communication

Accepted Answer

Nonverbal communication includes facial expression, body posture, gestures, eye contact, and touch, and it often conveys more than words. A grimace, guarding, or restlessness may signal pain in a resident who cannot speak; watch body language closely.

Question 33

Residents' Rights (OBRA '87)

Accepted Answer

Residents' Rights are federally guaranteed under OBRA '87 and include the right to privacy, dignity, to be free from abuse and restraints, to refuse treatment, to manage personal finances, and to voice grievances. CNAs must honor these rights in every interaction.

Question 34

Privacy and HIPAA

Accepted Answer

HIPAA requires that residents' health information stay confidential and be shared only with the care team on a need-to-know basis. Protect privacy by knocking before entering, closing curtains and doors during care, and never discussing residents in public areas or on social media.

Question 35

Dignity and Autonomy

Accepted Answer

Dignity means treating residents with respect, keeping them covered, and addressing them by their preferred name. Autonomy is the right to make their own choices, including refusing care; honor these preferences and report a refusal to the nurse.

Question 36

Abuse, Neglect, and Mandatory Reporting

Accepted Answer

Abuse is intentional harm (physical, emotional, sexual, or financial); neglect is failing to provide needed care. CNAs are mandatory reporters: report suspected abuse to the nurse immediately. In Georgia, if the supervisor is the suspected abuser, report directly to the Department of Community Health (DCH).

Question 37

Advance Directive and DNR

Accepted Answer

An advance directive is a legal document stating a resident's wishes for medical care if they cannot speak for themselves. A DNR (Do Not Resuscitate) order means no CPR is performed if the heart or breathing stops; the care team must honor it.

Question 38

Active vs. Passive Range of Motion

Accepted Answer

Active ROM is when the resident moves their own joints; passive ROM (PROM) is when the aide moves the joints for a resident who cannot. Move each joint slowly to the point of resistance, never past pain, to prevent contractures and maintain mobility.

Question 39

Contracture

Accepted Answer

A contracture is the permanent shortening and tightening of a muscle or tendon that freezes a joint in a bent position, caused by immobility. Range-of-motion exercises and proper positioning help prevent contractures, which are difficult to reverse once formed.

Question 40

Safe Ambulation

Accepted Answer

Ambulation is assisted walking. Apply a gait belt, have the resident wear non-skid shoes, and stand slightly behind and to the weak side. If the resident begins to fall, ease them gently to the floor by guiding them down along your body; never try to hold them upright.

Question 41

Assistive Devices (Cane and Walker)

Accepted Answer

A cane is held on the strong side and advanced with the weak leg. A walker must have all four legs on the floor before the resident steps forward. Check rubber tips for wear; these devices promote independence and reduce fall risk.

Question 42

Intake and Output (I&O)

Accepted Answer

I&O is the measured record of all fluids a resident takes in (drinks, IV, foods that are liquid at room temperature) and puts out (urine, emesis, drainage). Measure in milliliters (mL) and report a large imbalance, since it can signal dehydration or fluid overload.

Question 43

Measuring Weight Accurately

Accepted Answer

Weigh a resident at the same time of day (usually morning before breakfast), on the same scale, wearing similar clothing, after voiding. Consistent technique makes the reading reliable; report a sudden weight gain, which may indicate fluid retention.

Question 44

Objective vs. Subjective Observation

Accepted Answer

Objective data is what you can measure or observe (a temperature of 101 F, swelling, redness). Subjective data is what the resident reports that you cannot see ("my stomach hurts"). Report and document both accurately to the nurse.

Question 45

Specimen Collection Basics

Accepted Answer

When collecting a specimen, wear gloves, label the container with the resident's name correctly, and use a clean or sterile container as ordered. A clean-catch (midstream) urine specimen requires cleaning the perineal area first, voiding a little, then catching the middle of the stream.

Question 46

Delirium vs. Dementia

Accepted Answer

Delirium is a sudden, often reversible state of confusion caused by infection, dehydration, or medication, and it is a medical emergency to report. Dementia is a gradual, progressive, and irreversible loss of memory and thinking. A new, rapid change in mental status should be reported immediately.

Question 47

Sundowning

Accepted Answer

Sundowning is increased confusion, agitation, and restlessness that occurs in the late afternoon and evening in residents with dementia. Reduce it by keeping the area well-lit, calm, and familiar, limiting noise, and maintaining a consistent daily routine.

Question 48

Validation and Reality Orientation

Accepted Answer

Reality orientation reminds the resident of the date, place, and people and helps those with mild confusion. For advanced dementia, validation therapy is gentler: acknowledge the resident's feelings and reality rather than correcting them, which reduces distress.

Question 49

End-of-Life and Palliative Care

Accepted Answer

Palliative and hospice care focus on comfort and dignity rather than cure. The CNA provides gentle physical care, keeps the resident clean and repositioned, supports the family, and respects cultural and spiritual wishes. Hearing is often the last sense to fade, so speak kindly.

Question 50

Georgia Nurse Aide Registry and Renewal

Accepted Answer

After passing the Credentia NNAAP exam, a CNA is listed on the Georgia Nurse Aide Registry managed by Alliant Health Solutions under DCH authority. To keep the listing active, the CNA must work at least 8 paid nurse aide hours under a licensed nurse every 24 months; there is no grace period.

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