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Free Practice Questions for Saudi Board Plastic Surgery

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Sample Saudi Board Plastic Surgery Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Saudi Board Plastic Surgery exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A child with a cleft lip is being assessed for repair. Which combination describes the traditional 'Rule of 10s', a historical screening aid rather than a mandatory modern eligibility rule?
A.Age at least 10 weeks, weight at least 10 pounds, and hemoglobin at least 10 g/dL
B.Age at least 10 months, weight at least 10 pounds, and hemoglobin at least 10 g/dL
C.Age at least 10 weeks, weight at least 10 kilograms, and hemoglobin at least 10 g/dL
D.Age at least 10 weeks, weight at least 10 pounds, and hematocrit at least 10%
Explanation: The traditional rule combines 10 weeks of age, 10 pounds of weight, and hemoglobin of 10 g/dL. It is a historical guide to operative readiness, not a substitute for individualized pediatric, anesthetic, nutritional, and airway assessment.
2During a Millard rotation-advancement repair of a complete unilateral cleft lip, which muscle fibers must be released from their abnormal insertion along the anterior nasal spine and pyriform aperture to restore oral competence and symmetric sphincter function?
A.Levator labii superioris alaeque nasi
B.Orbicularis oris pars marginalis and pars peripheralis
C.Zygomaticus major
D.Depressor anguli oris
Explanation: In an unrepaired cleft lip, the orbicularis oris muscle fibers run vertically parallel to the cleft margin and insert abnormally onto the ipsilateral anterior nasal spine, caudal septum, and pyriform margin. Complete mobilization, horizontal reorientation, and layered midline approximation of both the deep (pars peripheralis) and superficial (pars marginalis) components of the orbicularis oris are critical to re-establish the continuous oral sphincter and proper philtral dynamic function.
3A 9-month-old child undergoes two-flap palatoplasty (Bardach technique) for a cleft palate. During dissection of the posterior neurovascular bundle emerging from the greater palatine foramen, which maneuver is most effective to safely increase flap mobilization towards the midline without avulsing the pedicle?
A.Complete surgical division of the descending palatine artery followed by microvascular re-anastomosis
B.Gentle stretching and circumferential blunt neurolysis of the fibrous sheath surrounding the greater palatine neurovascular pedicle
C.Transection of the tensor veli palatini tendon at the pterygoid hamulus with permanent tensor resection
D.Extensive subperiosteal elevation carried across the entire premaxilla and premaxillary incisive canal
Explanation: To mobilize palatal mucoperiosteal flaps medially without tension, circumferential release of the fibrous and fascial condensation surrounding the greater palatine neurovascular bundle as it exits the greater palatine foramen allows the vessel to stretch and advance medially by several millimeters without arterial sacrifice. Division of the hamulus or release of the tensor tendon may be performed, but pedicle neurolysis provides immediate vascularized flap mobilization.
4A 5-year-old child who previously underwent cleft palate repair presents with hypernasal speech and nasal air emissions during plosive consonants. Nasopharyngoscopy reveals persistent central velopharyngeal gap of 6 mm with vigorous lateral pharyngeal wall motion. What is the surgical treatment of choice for this velopharyngeal insufficiency (VPI)?
A.Hynes sphincter pharyngoplasty
B.Superiorly based posterior pharyngeal flap
C.Palatal lengthening via re-do two-flap palatoplasty
D.Posterior pharyngeal wall fat grafting
Explanation: When videofluoroscopy or nasopharyngoscopy demonstrates good lateral pharyngeal wall adduction but poor anteroposterior velar closure resulting in a central gap, a superiorly based posterior pharyngeal flap is the ideal procedure. The flap bridges the midline pharynx, creating two lateral ports that the active lateral pharyngeal walls can close during speech. A sphincter pharyngoplasty is indicated when the palate has good mobility but lateral pharyngeal wall motion is poor.
5A 24-year-old male sustains a severe blow to the face during an assault. Physical examination reveals malocclusion with an anterior open bite, bilateral periorbital ecchymosis, facial elongation ('dish-face' deformity), and mobility of the entire midface en bloc on grasping and rocking the maxillary incisors, with movement palpable at the nasofrontal suture. Which fracture pattern is present?
A.Le Fort I fracture
B.Le Fort II fracture
C.Le Fort III fracture
D.Isolated bilateral zygomatic arch fracture
Explanation: A Le Fort III fracture is craniofacial dysjunction, separating the midface from the cranial base through the nasofrontal region, orbital walls, zygomaticofrontal articulations, zygomatic arches, and pterygoid plates. Mobility of the zygomas together with the maxilla distinguishes this pattern from a pyramidal Le Fort II fracture. The superior orbital fissure is not a required part of the classic fracture line.
6A 32-year-old male presents following an altercation with a left subcondylar fracture of the mandible and a right parasymphyseal fracture. Physical examination demonstrates premature posterior contact on the left side and an anterior open bite. What is the most appropriate initial step in restoring pre-injury anatomical occlusion before rigid internal fixation?
A.Immediate placement of a reconstruction plate along the inferior border of the mandible without occlusal fixation
B.Application of arch bars and placement of the patient into temporary maxillomandibular fixation (MMF)
C.Unilateral interfragmentary lag screw placement across the fractured left condylar neck
D.Wide exposure of bilateral temporomandibular joint capsules via preauricular incisions
Explanation: In any displaced mandibular fracture affecting dental occlusion, the absolute cornerstone of treatment is establishing pre-injury dental occlusion first using maxillomandibular fixation (MMF) with Erich arch bars, hybrid MMF, or intermaxillary fixation screws. Once normal centric occlusion is locked in place, the bony segments are anatomically reduced and rigidly fixed with plates and screws according to AO principles (e.g., Champy tension band and inferior border fixation).
7According to Champy's principles of ideal lines of osteosynthesis in the mandible, what is the biomechanical rationale for placing a miniplate along the external oblique ridge in an angle fracture?
A.To counter the maximal compressive forces that naturally concentrate along the alveolar border
B.To counter the dynamic tensile distracting forces generated along the superior border of the mandible during mastication
C.To provide absolute rigid bicortical compression across the basal border of the mandibular angle
D.To prevent inadvertent injury to the facial artery as it crosses the antegonial notch
Explanation: Champy demonstrated that during mastication, the superior border of the mandibular angle is subject to tensile (distracting) forces produced by the masticatory muscles, while the inferior border experiences compressive forces. Placing a single monocortical miniplate along the superior border (external oblique ridge) acts as a tension band, neutralizing tensile strain and converting it into compression across the fracture line.
8A 28-year-old female presents after a motor vehicle collision with severe periorbital edema, enophthalmos of 3 mm on the right, vertical diplopia on upward gaze, and hypesthesia of the right cheek, upper lip, and anterior gingiva. A CT scan confirms an isolated pure blowout fracture of the orbital floor. What is the anatomical structure causing the sensory deficit in this patient?
A.Supraorbital nerve (cranial nerve V1)
B.Infraorbital nerve within the infraorbital canal (cranial nerve V2)
C.Zygomaticofacial branch of the maxillary nerve
D.Buccal branch of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII)
Explanation: The infraorbital nerve, a terminal branch of the maxillary nerve (V2), runs along the infraorbital groove and canal in the orbital floor before exiting through the infraorbital foramen. In an orbital floor blowout fracture, the fracture line frequently involves or compresses the infraorbital canal, leading to hypesthesia over the ipsilateral lower eyelid, cheek, lateral nose, and upper lip/gingiva.
9A 9-year-old boy is struck in the eye with a tennis ball. He arrives in the emergency department with severe nausea, recurrent vomiting, and profound bradycardia (pulse 42 bpm). On physical examination, the right globe displays complete restriction of upward gaze, but minimal periorbital bruising is observed. A CT scan reveals a 'trapdoor' orbital floor fracture with herniation of orbital tissue. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A.Prescribe oral prednisone and observe as an outpatient for 2 weeks to allow swelling to subside
B.Perform emergent surgical exploration and release of the entrapped rectus muscle to treat the oculocardiac reflex
C.Perform a retrobulbar lidocaine injection and place a pressure patch over the eye
D.Order emergent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain and orbits with gadolinium
Explanation: This patient has a pediatric 'white-eyed blowout fracture' (trapdoor fracture). Because of higher bone elasticity in children, the fractured orbital floor recoils back into place, entrapping the inferior rectus muscle or adjacent periorbital tissues. The persistent traction triggers the oculocardiac reflex (afferent limb CN V1, efferent limb CN X), causing severe bradycardia, nausea, and syncope, and threatens ischemic necrosis of the trapped rectus muscle. It is a surgical emergency requiring immediate exploration and release.
10A patient has telecanthus, a depressed nasal bridge, and a comminuted naso-orbito-ethmoid fracture. Surgical exploration confirms that the medial canthal tendon is detached from its bony insertion. According to the Markowitz and Manson classification, which fracture type is present?
A.Type I NOE fracture
B.Type II NOE fracture
C.Type III NOE fracture
D.Type IV NOE fracture
Explanation: Under the Markowitz and Manson classification for naso-orbito-ethmoid (NOE) fractures: Type I is a single, large non-comminuted central fragment containing the medial canthal tendon (MCT); Type II is a comminuted central fragment, but the MCT remains attached to a manageable bone fragment; Type III is severe comminution involving the central fragment with actual detachment or avulsion of the MCT insertion from bone (or comminution extending beneath the tendon). Type III requires transnasal canthopexy and bone grafting.

About the Saudi Board Plastic Surgery Exam

Independent English-language MCQ study adaptation by OpenExamPrep for the Saudi Board Final Written Examination in Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery. Practice reconstructive knowledge and clinical decisions across the specialty. This is not an official translation, an official-format simulation, or a substitute for operative, OSCE, oral, or supervised clinical practice. OpenExamPrep is not affiliated with or endorsed by SCFHS.

Exam sponsor: Saudi Commission for Health Specialties (SCFHS). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Written single-best-answer MCQs. The separate final clinical examination has eight 10-minute graded stations: one OSCE and seven SOE stations.

Time Limit

Written-paper duration not confirmed in the public specialty sources reviewed; check the admission notice.

Passing Score

70%, with conditional adjustment to a minimum of 65% as specified in the written blueprint

Exam / Certification Fees

Not confirmed in the public specialty sources reviewed; check SCFHS registration.

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

10%

General Principles and Techniques

Wounds, grafts, flaps, microsurgery, implants, and biomaterials.

7%

Specific Related Disciplines

Anesthesia, critical care, immunology, therapeutics, and psychiatric assessment.

8%

Integument

Skin lesions, burns, trauma, and wound problems.

22%

Head and Neck

Cleft care, facial trauma, reconstruction, and aesthetic and functional surgery.

20%

Upper Extremity

Hand trauma, tendons, nerves, congenital disorders, and reconstruction.

10%

Trunk

Chest and abdominal wall reconstruction, pressure injuries, and contouring.

10%

Lower Extremity

Trauma, soft-tissue coverage, and functional reconstruction.

5%

Genitourinary System

Genital and perineal reconstruction and functional problems.

8%

Breast

Reconstruction, congenital disorders, and aesthetic breast surgery.

Preparing for the Saudi Board Plastic Surgery Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 70%, with conditional adjustment to a minimum of 65% as specified in the written blueprint
  • Assessment: Written single-best-answer MCQs. The separate final clinical examination has eight 10-minute graded stations: one OSCE and seven SOE stations.
  • Time limit: Written-paper duration not confirmed in the public specialty sources reviewed; check the admission notice.
  • Exam / certification fees: Not confirmed in the public specialty sources reviewed; check SCFHS registration. Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Saudi Board Plastic Surgery: Suggested Study Strategy

1Study the current SCFHS topic outline and check your admission notice for logistics.
2Review flap and graft physiology together with recipient and donor-site anatomy.
3Practice emergency recognition in burns, orbital injury, compartment syndrome, and threatened flaps.
4Use supervised practical and oral preparation for competencies that MCQs cannot assess.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the official written format?

The current SCFHS blueprint specifies two papers of 100–125 single-best-answer MCQs each, with up to 10% unscored pretest items added. Written duration and the applicable fee were not verified in the public specialty documents reviewed.

What other assessments are required?

Candidates must satisfy training-completion requirements, including approved clinical and program work. Passing the written examination is required before the final clinical examination, which has one OSCE and seven SOE stations, each lasting 10 minutes.

What is the passing score?

The written blueprint sets 70%. If fewer than 70% of candidates pass before approval, SCFHS lowers the score one mark at a time toward a 70% pass rate or a 65% score, whichever comes first. The score cannot fall below 65%.

Is this an official English examination simulation?

No. This is an independent English-language MCQ study adaptation. The reviewed public specialty sources do not explicitly confirm permitted assessment languages, so no official English sitting or translation is claimed. The bank cannot replace OSCE, oral, operative, or supervised clinical preparation.