All Practice Exams

113+ Free Dermatology Board Practice Questions

Pass your Saudi Board Dermatology Final Written Exam exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately
~75% Pass Rate
113+ Questions
100% Free

Loading practice questions...

Sample Dermatology Board Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Dermatology Board exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 113+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 45-year-old patient presents with painful oral mucosal erosions followed by the development of flaccid cutaneous bullae on the trunk. Direct immunofluorescence of a perilesional skin biopsy reveals intercellular IgG and C3 deposition throughout the epidermis. Which of the following is the primary autoantigen target in the mucosal-dominant form of this disease?
A.Desmoglein 1
B.Desmoglein 3
C.BP180 (Type XVII Collagen)
D.Desmocollin 1
Explanation: Pemphigus vulgaris (PV) is an autoimmune blistering disease characterized by flaccid bullae and mucosal erosions. The mucosal-dominant form of PV is characterized by autoantibodies directed primarily against Desmoglein 3 (Dsg3). When both mucosal and cutaneous lesions are present (mucocutaneous PV), autoantibodies against both Desmoglein 1 (Dsg1) and Desmoglein 3 are found. Dsg3 is heavily expressed in mucosal epithelium throughout all layers, whereas Dsg1 expression is minimal in mucosa, explaining why anti-Dsg3 antibodies cause mucosal blistering.
2Which of the following direct immunofluorescence (DIF) findings is most characteristic of Bullous Pemphigoid?
A.Granular IgA deposition in the dermal papillae
B.Linear IgG and C3 deposition along the basement membrane zone
C.Intercellular epidermal IgG and C3 deposition in a fishnet pattern
D.Shaggy linear fibrinogen deposition along the basement membrane zone
Explanation: Bullous pemphigoid is a subepidermal autoimmune blistering disease. Direct immunofluorescence (DIF) of perilesional skin characteristically shows linear deposition of IgG and C3 along the basement membrane zone (BMZ). The autoantibodies target BP180 (type XVII collagen) and BP230, which are components of the hemidesmosome.
3A 32-year-old patient with severe plaque psoriasis is being considered for biologic therapy. The patient's dermatologist discusses a class of biologics that selectively binds to the p19 subunit of interleukin-23 (IL-23). Which of the following cytokines is shared with IL-12 and thus NOT targeted by a selective p19 inhibitor?
A.IL-23 p40
B.IL-17A
C.IL-22
D.IL-36
Explanation: Interleukin-23 (IL-23) is a heterodimeric cytokine composed of a unique p19 subunit and a p40 subunit. Interleukin-12 (IL-12) is composed of a unique p35 subunit and the same p40 subunit. Selective IL-23 inhibitors (e.g., guselkumab, risankizumab, tildrakizumab) target the p19 subunit of IL-23, leaving the p40 subunit (and thus IL-12) unaffected. Older agents like ustekinumab bind the p40 subunit, blocking both IL-12 and IL-23.
4A 54-year-old patient presents with clinically amyopathic dermatomyositis. She has mild heliotrope erythema and Gottron's papules but no objective muscle weakness. Which of the following myositis-specific autoantibodies is most strongly associated with rapidly progressive interstitial lung disease (RP-ILD) in dermatomyositis patients?
A.Anti-Mi-2
B.Anti-Jo-1
C.Anti-MDA5
D.Anti-TIF1-gamma
Explanation: Anti-MDA5 (melanoma differentiation-associated gene 5, also known as anti-CADM-140) autoantibody is strongly associated with clinically amyopathic dermatomyositis (CADM), characteristic cutaneous features (ulcerative Gottron's papules, palmar macules, painful oral ulcers), and a high risk of rapidly progressive interstitial lung disease (RP-ILD), which carries a high mortality rate and requires aggressive immunosuppressive therapy.
5A 48-year-old female presents with an annular, erythematous, scaling eruption in a photo-distributed pattern on her upper back and chest. A biopsy confirms subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus (SCLE). She was recently started on a new medication for hypertension. Which of the following autoantibodies is present in over 80% of SCLE cases, and which drug is a classic trigger for drug-induced SCLE?
A.Anti-dsDNA; Hydralazine
B.Anti-Ro/SSA; Hydrochlorothiazide
C.Anti-Sm; Procainamide
D.Anti-histone; Minocycline
Explanation: Subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus (SCLE) is strongly associated with anti-Ro/SSA antibodies (positive in >80% of cases). Drug-induced SCLE is a well-recognized entity, and hydrochlorothiazide is the most classic and frequently reported culprit medication. Other common triggers include terbinafine, calcium channel blockers, and TNF-alpha inhibitors. Unlike drug-induced systemic lupus (which is associated with anti-histone antibodies), drug-induced SCLE patients have anti-Ro/SSA antibodies and present with classic annular or psoriasiform lesions.
6A 35-year-old man presents with a rapidly progressive, painful ulcer on his lower leg with a violaceous, undermined border. He notes that the ulcer began as a small pustule at the site of a minor scratch. Which of the following systemic diseases is most commonly associated with this cutaneous condition, and what is the term for the development of lesions at sites of trauma?
A.Celiac disease; Dermatographism
B.Inflammatory bowel disease; Pathergy
C.Hepatitis C; Koebnerization
D.Diabetes mellitus; Necrobiosis
Explanation: The clinical description of a rapidly expanding painful ulcer with a violaceous, undermined border is diagnostic of Pyoderma Gangrenosum (PG). Approximately 50% of PG cases are associated with an underlying systemic disease, most commonly Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD: Crohn's disease or Ulcerative Colitis), followed by rheumatoid arthritis and hematologic malignancies (e.g., AML, IgA monoclonal gammopathy). The development of PG lesions at sites of minor trauma (like a scratch or needle stick) is called pathergy.
7A 50-year-old male presents with sudden onset of high fever, leukocytosis, and painful, juicy, erythematous plaques on his head, neck, and upper extremities. Skin biopsy shows a dense dermal neutrophilic infiltrate with marked papillary dermal edema but no evidence of leukocytoclastic vasculitis. Which of the following malignancies is most frequently associated with the drug-induced or malignancy-associated forms of this disease?
A.Colorectal adenocarcinoma
B.Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
C.Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
D.Follicular thyroid carcinoma
Explanation: Sweet syndrome (acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis) presents with fever, leukocytosis, painful erythematous plaques ('juicy' due to marked papillary dermal edema), and a dense neutrophilic dermal infiltrate without vasculitis. Malignancy-associated Sweet syndrome occurs in about 20% of cases and is most commonly associated with hematologic malignancies, especially Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) and myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS).
8A 40-year-old patient presents with pruritic, purple, polygonal, planar papules on the flexor wrists. White reticulated lines (Wickham's striae) are visible on the surface of the papules and oral mucosa. A biopsy shows a band-like lymphocytic infiltrate at the dermo-epidermal junction and saw-tooth epidermal hyperplasia. Which chronic viral infection has a well-documented epidemiological association with this disease?
A.Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
B.Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
C.Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
D.Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
Explanation: The clinical features (pruritic, purple, polygonal, planar papules with Wickham's striae) and histopathological findings (band-like interface lymphocytic infiltrate, saw-tooth epidermal hyperplasia) are diagnostic of Lichen Planus (LP). There is a significant, well-established association between lichen planus (particularly oral and erosive subtypes) and chronic Hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection. Screening for HCV is recommended for patients diagnosed with lichen planus.
9A 24-year-old female presents with painful, erythematous, warm nodules on her bilateral shins. She reports a history of recent sore throat. A biopsy of a nodule shows septal panniculitis with a mixed inflammatory infiltrate and Miescher's radial granulomas, but without any vasculitis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Erythema nodosum
B.Erythema induratum (Nodular vasculitis)
C.Polyarteritis nodosa
D.Weber-Christian disease
Explanation: Erythema nodosum (EN) is the most common form of panniculitis. It classically presents as tender, erythematous nodules on the anterior shins. Histopathologically, EN is the prototype of septal panniculitis without vasculitis. The presence of Miescher's radial granulomas (small nodular collections of histiocytes around a central cleft) is highly characteristic of EN. It is often reactive to streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or drugs (e.g., oral contraceptives).
10A 55-year-old male with a history of alcohol abuse presents with skin fragility, vesicles, and bullae on the dorsum of his hands, along with facial hypertrichosis and hyperpigmentation. Analysis of his urine reveals elevated levels of uroporphyrins. Which of the following enzymes is deficient in this disease, and which viral infection is most commonly co-associated?
A.Porphobilinogen deaminase; Hepatitis B
B.Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase; Hepatitis C
C.Ferrochelatase; HIV
D.Coproporphyrinogen oxidase; Hepatitis A
Explanation: Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase (UROD). It presents with subepidermal blistering and skin fragility on sun-exposed areas (especially the dorsum of hands), milia, scarring, hypertrichosis of the face, and hyperpigmentation. PCT can be familial or acquired (sporadic), and is strongly triggered by iron overload, alcohol consumption, estrogens, and chronic Hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection.

About the Dermatology Board Exam

This practice exam covers general dermatology, pediatric dermatology, dermatopathology, surgical/cosmetic dermatology, and therapeutics/pharmacology.

Assessment

100 multiple-choice questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

60%

Exam Fee

Free (Saudi Commission for Health Specialties (SCFHS))

Dermatology Board Exam Content Outline

20%

General Dermatology

Medical dermatology, clinical presentations, and diagnosis of skin diseases.

20%

Pediatric Dermatology

Skin conditions and manifestations in neonates, infants, and children.

20%

Dermatopathology

Histopathological findings, biopsy interpretations, and pathology correlations.

20%

Surgical & Cosmetic Dermatology

Excision techniques, cosmetic dermatology, laser safety, and wound care.

20%

Therapeutics & Pharmacology

Systemic and topical dermatological drugs, side effects, and monitoring.

How to Pass the Dermatology Board Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 60%
  • Assessment: 100 multiple-choice questions
  • Time limit: 3 hours
  • Exam fee: Free

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format of the Dermatology Board exam?

The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions covering all five content domains.

What is the passing score for the Dermatology Board exam?

Candidates must score at least 60% to pass the exam.