All Practice Exams
110+ Free Orthopedic Board Practice Questions
Pass your Saudi Board Orthopedic Surgery Final Written Exam exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.
✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately
~75% Pass Rate
110+ Questions
100% Free
Loading practice questions...
Same family resources
Explore More Saudi Board Specialty Exams
Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.
Sample Orthopedic Board Practice Questions
Try these sample questions to test your Orthopedic Board exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 110+ question experience with AI tutoring.
1A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident with an open tibia fracture. There is a 4 cm wound over the anterior leg with moderate soft-tissue damage, bone coverage, and minimal contamination. Which Gustilo-Anderson grade is this, and what is the recommended antibiotic prophylaxis?
A.Grade I; Cefazolin
B.Grade II; Cefazolin
C.Grade IIIA; Cefazolin and Gentamicin
D.Grade IIIB; Cefazolin, Gentamicin, and Penicillin
Explanation: A wound between 1-10 cm with moderate soft tissue damage and no extensive contamination or periosteal stripping is a Gustilo-Anderson Grade II open fracture. For Grade I and II open fractures, first-generation cephalosporins (e.g., Cefazolin) provide adequate coverage. Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin) are added for Grade III open fractures, and Penicillin is added for organic or farmyard contamination to cover anaerobes like Clostridium.
2A 32-year-old male sustains a closed tibia-fibula fracture. Six hours after splinting, he reports escalating pain out of proportion to the injury. On examination, there is severe pain with passive stretch of the toes, but distal pulses are palpable. What is the most sensitive diagnostic threshold for acute compartment syndrome?
A.Delta pressure (diastolic BP minus compartment pressure) less than 30 mmHg
B.Absolute compartment pressure greater than 45 mmHg
C.Absence of distal pulses and capillary refill
D.Loss of sensation in the first webspace
Explanation: The most sensitive and objective indicator for acute compartment syndrome (ACS) is a delta pressure (diastolic blood pressure minus compartment pressure) of less than 30 mmHg. An absolute compartment pressure of >30 mmHg in a symptomatic patient is also diagnostic, but delta pressure accounts for systemic perfusion pressure. Distal pulses are typically palpable and are a late, unreliable sign of ACS. Neurological deficits like sensory loss are also late signs.
3A 45-year-old male presents with a pelvic ring injury after falling from a height. Radiographs show a symphysis pubis diastasis of 4 cm and widening of the left sacroiliac joint. What is the classification of this injury according to the Young-Burgess system, and what is the initial stabilization method?
A.APC-I; Pelvic binder at the iliac crests
B.APC-II; Pelvic binder at the greater trochanters
C.APC-III; Pelvic binder at the greater trochanters
D.LC-II; Anterior external fixator
Explanation: This injury represents an Anteroposterior Compression Type III (APC-III) pelvic ring disruption, characterized by symphysis diastasis >2.5 cm, disruption of the anterior/posterior SI ligaments, and sacrospinous/sacrotuberous ligaments. Initial stabilization should be achieved with a pelvic binder placed at the level of the greater trochanters to maximize compression. Positioning the binder over the iliac crests is incorrect and can exacerbate pelvic deformity.
4A 38-year-old male sustains a posterior hip dislocation with an associated acetabular fracture. Post-reduction CT reveals a large fracture fragment of the posterior wall of the acetabulum involving 45% of the articular surface. What is the definitive treatment indication?
A.Nonoperative management with skeletal traction
B.Closed reduction and percutaneous screw fixation
C.Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with plate and screws
D.Total hip arthroplasty (THA)
Explanation: Posterior wall fractures are the most common acetabular fractures. Surgical indication (ORIF) is based on hip stability, which correlates with fragment size. Fragments involving >40-50% of the posterior wall require ORIF due to high risk of instability and subluxation. Fragments <20% are typically stable and treated nonoperatively, while those 20-40% require dynamic stress views under fluoroscopy to assess stability.
5An 82-year-old active female sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture (Garden Type IV). She has a history of mild controlled hypertension but is otherwise healthy. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
A.Cannulated screw fixation
B.Sliding hip screw fixation
C.Unipolar hemiarthroplasty
D.Total hip arthroplasty (THA)
Explanation: For an active, elderly patient with a displaced femoral neck fracture (Garden III or IV), total hip arthroplasty (THA) provides superior long-term clinical outcomes, lower reoperation rates, and better functional scores compared to hemiarthroplasty. Hemiarthroplasty is preferred for low-demand, sedentary elderly patients or those with severe comorbidities and limited life expectancy.
6A 28-year-old male sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture in a high-energy fall. What is the primary concern that guides the timing and execution of surgical management for this patient?
A.High rate of deep vein thrombosis
B.Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head
C.Inability to mobilize early
D.Severe blood loss from the fracture site
Explanation: In young patients, displaced femoral neck fractures are orthopaedic emergencies. The femoral head blood supply (primarily the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery) is compromised by displacement and intracapsular hematoma tamponade. Urgent anatomical reduction and stable internal fixation (within 6-24 hours) is indicated to reduce the risk of osteonecrosis (AVN) and nonunion.
7A 24-year-old polytrauma patient sustains closed bilateral femoral shaft fractures. Twelve hours after admission, he becomes confused, tachypneic, and hypoxic, with a petechial rash noted on his axilla and conjunctiva. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Pulmonary embolism from DVT
B.Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
C.Fat embolism syndrome (FES)
D.Hypovolemic shock
Explanation: Fat embolism syndrome (FES) is a classic complication of long-bone fractures (especially femur fractures). The triad consists of pulmonary dysfunction (hypoxia, tachypnea), neurological changes (confusion, irritability), and petechial rash (conjunctiva, axilla, neck). Treatment is primarily supportive (oxygenation, mechanical ventilation). Early fixation of long-bone fractures reduces the incidence of FES.
8A 45-year-old male sustains a distal femur fracture. CT scan reveals a coronal plane shear fracture of the posterior aspect of the medial femoral condyle (Hoffa fracture). What is the recommended treatment strategy?
A.Nonoperative management in a long leg cast
B.Open reduction and internal fixation using anterior-to-posterior lag screws
C.Retrograde intramedullary nailing
D.External fixation only
Explanation: A Hoffa fracture is a unicondylar femoral condyle fracture in the coronal plane, most commonly affecting the lateral condyle. Because it is intra-articular and subjected to shear forces by the gastrocnemius muscle, nonoperative treatment results in high rates of displacement and nonunion. Operative treatment involves ORIF with lag screws (usually placed anterior-to-posterior or posterior-to-anterior if countersunk) to compress the fracture.
9A 40-year-old male presents with a Schatzker Type II tibial plateau fracture. Which of the following best describes the anatomical pattern of this injury?
A.Pure cleavage split of the lateral plateau
B.Split-depression fracture of the lateral plateau
C.Pure central depression of the lateral plateau
D.Bicondylar tibial plateau fracture
Explanation: The Schatzker classification categorized tibial plateau fractures into six types. Type I is a wedge/split of the lateral plateau. Type II is a split-depression of the lateral plateau. Type III is a pure depression of the lateral plateau. Type IV is a medial plateau fracture (often high-energy). Type V is bicondylar. Type VI involves dissociation of the metaphysis from the diaphysis.
10A 35-year-old male sustains a closed tibial shaft fracture. What are the acceptable alignment parameters for nonoperative management in a long leg cast?
A.Up to 15 degrees varus/valgus, 20 degrees anterior/posterior angulation
B.Less than 5 degrees varus/valgus, 10 degrees anterior/posterior angulation, and <1 cm shortening
C.Less than 10 degrees varus/valgus, 15 degrees anterior/posterior angulation, and <2 cm shortening
D.No angulation or shortening is acceptable; all adult tibial fractures require surgery
Explanation: Acceptable criteria for casting a tibial shaft fracture include: <5 degrees varus/valgus angulation, <10 degrees anterior/posterior angulation, <10 degrees rotation, and <1 cm shortening, along with >50% cortical contact. Deviations beyond these thresholds result in poor functional outcomes, altered ankle/knee mechanics, and increased rates of osteoarthritis.
About the Orthopedic Board Exam
This practice exam covers trauma/fractures, joint reconstruction/arthroplasty, pediatric/spine, sports medicine/arthroscopy, and hand/foot/tumor orthopedics.
Assessment
100 multiple-choice questions
Time Limit
3 hours
Passing Score
60%
Exam Fee
Free (Saudi Commission for Health Specialties (SCFHS))
Orthopedic Board Exam Content Outline
20%
Trauma & Fracture Management
Open and closed fractures, dislocations, nonunions, and orthopedic emergencies.
20%
Joint Reconstruction & Arthroplasty
Primary and revision hip and knee arthroplasty, osteoarthritis management.
20%
Pediatric & Spine Deformities
Scoliosis, pediatric hip disorders, spinal trauma, and degenerative disc disease.
20%
Sports Medicine & Arthroscopy
ACL, meniscus, rotator cuff tears, shoulder instability, and arthroscopic techniques.
20%
Hand, Foot, Tumor & General Ortho
Carpal tunnel, diabetic foot, bone tumors, and basic metabolic bone diseases.
How to Pass the Orthopedic Board Exam
What You Need to Know
- Passing score: 60%
- Assessment: 100 multiple-choice questions
- Time limit: 3 hours
- Exam fee: Free
Keys to Passing
- Complete 500+ practice questions
- Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
- Focus on highest-weighted sections
- Use our AI tutor for tough concepts
Frequently Asked Questions
What is the format of the Orthopedic Board exam?
The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions covering all five content domains.
What is the passing score for the Orthopedic Board exam?
Candidates must score at least 60% to pass the exam.