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Free Practice Questions for Anatomic Pathology Board

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Sample Anatomic Pathology Board Practice Questions

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1A 52-year-old woman undergoes a right hemicolectomy for a cecal adenocarcinoma. Immunohistochemistry for DNA mismatch repair (MMR) proteins demonstrates intact nuclear expression of MSH2 and MSH6 in the neoplastic cells, but complete loss of nuclear expression of MLH1 and PMS2. Internal positive controls (stromal cells and infiltrating lymphocytes) show strong nuclear staining for all four proteins. Which of the following is the most appropriate next molecular diagnostic step to distinguish a sporadic neoplasm from Lynch syndrome?
A.Germline sequencing of the MSH6 and PMS2 genes.
B.Testing for BRAF V600E mutation and MLH1 promoter hypermethylation.
C.Testing for KRAS exon 2 codon 12 and 13 hotspot mutations.
D.Microsatellite instability (MSI) testing using pentaplex mononucleotide markers.
Explanation: In colorectal adenocarcinoma, concurrent loss of MLH1 and PMS2 is most commonly caused by somatic hypermethylation of the MLH1 gene promoter (a sporadic epigenetic event) rather than Lynch syndrome. Identifying a BRAF V600E mutation or MLH1 promoter hypermethylation virtually excludes Lynch syndrome and confirms a sporadic origin, whereas the absence of both warrants genetic counseling and germline MLH1 testing.
2A 64-year-old man undergoes resection of a 4.5 cm well-circumscribed submucosal gastric mass. Histopathology reveals intersecting fascicles of uniform spindle cells with blunt-ended nuclei and pale eosinophilic cytoplasm. Immunohistochemistry is strongly and diffusely positive for KIT (CD117) and DOG1. Mitotic count demonstrates 2 mitoses per 5 mm². According to the Miettinen and Lasota (AFIP) risk stratification criteria, which of the following risk categories best describes this tumor?
A.No risk of progressive disease.
B.High risk of progressive disease.
C.Very low risk of progressive disease.
D.Moderate risk of progressive disease.
Explanation: According to the Miettinen and Lasota (AFIP) criteria for gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST), a gastric GIST measuring between 2.1 and 5.0 cm with a low mitotic index (<= 5 mitoses per 5 mm²) carries a very low risk (approximately 1.9%) of progressive disease or metastasis.
3An endoscopic biopsy of the distal esophagus in a 60-year-old man with chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease shows specialized intestinal metaplasia with goblet cells. Cytologic examination reveals crowded glands with nuclear stratification confined to the basal half of the cells, hyperchromasia, preserved polarity, and mild nuclear enlargement extending to the mucosal surface without loss of nuclear orientation or marked architectural complexity. Which of the following is the most accurate diagnostic interpretation?
A.Barrett esophagus with low-grade dysplasia.
B.Barrett esophagus with high-grade dysplasia.
C.Barrett esophagus with intramucosal adenocarcinoma.
D.Barrett esophagus, negative for dysplasia with reactive epithelial changes.
Explanation: Low-grade dysplasia in Barrett esophagus is defined by nuclear hyperchromasia, crowding, and pseudostratification that extends to the mucosal surface while maintaining nuclear polarity and remaining largely confined to the basal half to two-thirds of the epithelium, without marked architectural complexity, cribriforming, or loss of cellular orientation.
4A 28-year-old woman undergoes total proctocolectomy for medically refractory colitis. Gross examination shows diffuse, continuous mucosal erythema, granular ulceration, and inflammatory pseudopolyps extending from the dentate line of the rectum to the mid-transverse colon, with sharp demarcation from normal proximal mucosa. Microscopic examination demonstrates diffuse mucosal architectural distortion, crypt branching, basal lymphoplasmacytosis, and crypt abscesses confined strictly to the mucosa and superficial submucosa, without transmural inflammation or granulomas. Which of the following is the definitive diagnosis?
A.Crohn disease.
B.Microscopic lymphocytic colitis.
C.Ischemic colitis.
D.Ulcerative colitis.
Explanation: Ulcerative colitis is characterized pathologically by continuous, diffuse mucosal inflammation starting in the rectum and extending proximally without skip lesions, marked architectural distortion, basal plasmacytosis, crypt abscesses, and inflammation limited to the mucosa and superficial submucosa without non-caseating granulomas or transmural lymphoid aggregates.
5A 38-year-old man undergoes total gastrectomy for a diffuse, infiltrative gastric neoplasm causing thickened, rigid gastric walls (linitis plastica). Histopathologic examination demonstrates discohesive neoplastic cells with abundant intracytoplasmic mucin vacuoles displacing eccentric, crescent-shaped hyperchromatic nuclei infiltrating diffusely through the muscularis propria and subserosa. Immunohistochemistry reveals complete absence of membranous staining for E-cadherin in the neoplastic cells. Genetic evaluation is most likely to identify a germline mutation in which of the following genes?
A.APC.
B.CDH1.
C.TP53.
D.SMAD4.
Explanation: Hereditary diffuse gastric cancer (HDGC) is an autosomal dominant syndrome caused by inactivating germline mutations in the CDH1 gene (encoding E-cadherin), which leads to loss of intercellular adhesion and the characteristic diffuse infiltration of discohesive signet ring carcinoma cells producing linitis plastica.
6A 32-year-old woman is found to have a well-circumscribed, 4.0 cm liver mass on abdominal MRI. Surgical resection yields a tan-yellow unencapsulated mass with a prominent central fibrous scar containing thick-walled, dystrophic arteries with eccentric intimal hyperplasia. Surrounding the scar are radiating fibrous septa dividing the lesion into nodules of benign-appearing hepatocytes without portal tracts. Immunohistochemistry for glutamine synthetase demonstrates strong, anastomosing, map-like (geographic) cytoplasmic staining. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Hepatocellular carcinoma.
B.Inflammatory hepatocellular adenoma.
C.Focal nodular hyperplasia.
D.HNF1A-inactivated hepatocellular adenoma.
Explanation: Focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH) is a benign, non-neoplastic hyperplastic response to a pre-existing vascular malformation. Key diagnostic features include a central stellate scar containing abnormal dystrophic arteries, absence of true portal tracts, and a pathognomonic 'map-like' anastomosing pattern of glutamine synthetase staining reflecting localized activation of the beta-catenin pathway.
7A 34-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhea, iron-deficiency anemia, and elevated anti-tissue transglutaminase (tTG) IgA titers. Duodenal biopsies show complete blunting and flattening of the intestinal villi, elongated hyperplastic crypts with increased mitotic figures, and a marked increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes (>40 lymphocytes per 100 enterocytes) concentrated in the surface epithelium. According to the modified Marsh-Oberhuber classification, which stage corresponds to these findings?
A.Marsh III (destructive / villous atrophy).
B.Marsh 0 (pre-infiltrative, normal mucosa).
C.Marsh I (infiltrative).
D.Marsh II (hyperplastic).
Explanation: The modified Marsh-Oberhuber classification categorizes celiac disease lesions into: Marsh 0 (normal mucosa), Marsh I (infiltrative, >25 IELs/100 enterocytes with normal architecture), Marsh II (hyperplastic, increased IELs plus crypt hyperplasia), and Marsh III (destructive, increased IELs, crypt hyperplasia, and villous atrophy: partial [IIIa], subtotal [IIIb], or total [IIIc]).
8An appendectomy specimen from a 55-year-old woman shows a dilated appendix filled with copious extracellular mucin. Microscopic examination reveals a villous and flattened proliferation of mucin-rich columnar epithelium with low-grade cytologic atypia, widespread loss of the lamina propria and muscularis mucosae, and push-type herniation of acellular mucin dissecting into the muscularis propria without desmoplasia or infiltrative destructive invasion. The proximal surgical margin is widely clear. Which of the following is the most accurate diagnosis?
A.Mucinous adenocarcinoma of the appendix.
B.Appendiceal goblet cell adenocarcinoma.
C.High-grade appendiceal mucinous neoplasm (HAMN).
D.Low-grade appendiceal mucinous neoplasm (LAMN).
Explanation: Low-grade appendiceal mucinous neoplasm (LAMN) is characterized by a low-grade mucinous epithelial proliferation, loss of lamina propria, effacement of lymphoid tissue, and pushing (diverticular-like) invasion into the appendiceal wall without infiltrative destructive invasion or desmoplastic stromal response. Infiltrative destructive invasion would define invasive adenocarcinoma.
9A core needle biopsy of an ill-defined breast mass in a 58-year-old woman shows a discohesive proliferation of small, uniform, round cells with eccentric nuclei and intracytoplasmic lumina containing mucin droplets. The neoplastic cells infiltrate the dense fibrous stroma in a single-file ('Indian file') pattern and concentrically encircle normal mammary ducts in a targetoid fashion. To confirm the diagnosis, immunohistochemistry is performed. Which of the following staining profiles is characteristic of this lesion?
A.Loss of membranous E-cadherin with cytoplasmic p120 catenin.
B.Strong membranous E-cadherin with strong membranous p120 catenin.
C.Complete loss of both E-cadherin and p120 catenin.
D.Diffuse strong nuclear p63 expression with membranous E-cadherin.
Explanation: Invasive lobular carcinoma (ILC) is characterized by biallelic loss of the CDH1 gene, resulting in complete absence of membranous E-cadherin expression. In the absence of membranous E-cadherin, its associated binding partner p120 catenin translocates from the cell membrane and accumulates diffusely in the cytoplasm, confirming lobular phenotype.
10A 46-year-old woman undergoes excision of an 8.0 cm rapidly growing, well-circumscribed, fleshy breast mass. Histopathologic examination shows a biphasic fibroepithelial neoplasm with an exaggerated intracanalicular architecture forming leaf-like stromal projections lined by benign luminal epithelial and myoepithelial cells. The stroma shows marked diffuse hypercellularity, severe nuclear pleomorphism, stromal overgrowth (absence of epithelial elements in at least one low-power field), infiltrative margins, and 14 mitoses per 10 high-power fields (HPFs). Which of the following is the definitive diagnosis?
A.Benign phyllodes tumor.
B.Borderline phyllodes tumor.
C.Malignant phyllodes tumor.
D.Metaplastic carcinoma (sarcomatoid type).
Explanation: According to the WHO classification of breast tumors, a malignant phyllodes tumor is diagnosed when there is marked stromal nuclear atypia, stromal overgrowth, infiltrative margins, marked stromal cellularity, and high mitotic activity (>= 10 mitoses per 10 HPFs or >= 5 mitoses per mm²).

About the Anatomic Pathology Board Exam

Independent English-language MCQ study adaptation by OpenExamPrep. Independent MCQ study aid developed by OpenExamPrep for the Saudi Board Final Written Examination in Anatomic Pathology. Covers surgical pathology, cytopathology, quality and safety, special stains and IHC, general pathology, autopsy and forensic pathology, and molecular pathology. Note: this study aid targets the final written examination and does not simulate the clinical OSCE or structured oral exam.

Exam sponsor: Saudi Commission for Health Specialties (SCFHS). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Two papers, each with 100–125 single-best-answer MCQs. Up to 10% additional unscored items may be added. Duration is not stated in the written blueprint.

Time Limit

Not published by SCFHS

Passing Score

70% (lowered to minimum 65% if pass rate under 70%)

Exam / Certification Fees

Not published by SCFHS

Exam sponsor website

Reported exam pass rate: Not published by SCFHS. SCFHS publishes no candidate pass rate. The blueprint instead sets the passing score at 70% and, if fewer than 70% of candidates pass before final approval, lowers that score one mark at a time until a 70% pass rate is reached or the score reaches 65%, whichever comes first; it is never lowered below 65%. Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

50%

Surgical Pathology (including frozen section)

Diagnostic surgical histopathology including frozen section evaluation, neoplastic and non-neoplastic diseases across organ systems.

18%

Cytopathology

Exfoliative and fine needle aspiration (FNA) cytology across gynecologic, thyroid, salivary gland, and body fluid specimens.

12%

Quality and Safety

Pre-analytic, analytic, and post-analytic quality assurance, specimen turnaround, critical value reporting, and laboratory safety regulations.

5%

Special Stains and Immunohistochemistry

Histochemical special stains, antibody panels, diagnostic IHC interpretation, and troubleshooting staining artifacts.

5%

General Pathology

Cell injury, necrosis, apoptosis, acute and chronic inflammation, hemodynamics, and basic neoplasia mechanisms.

5%

Autopsy and Forensic Pathology

Autopsy techniques, postmortem changes, cause and manner of death determination, and forensic trauma investigation principles.

5%

Molecular and Cytogenetics studies and electron microscopy

Molecular diagnostics, next-generation sequencing, FISH, PCR applications, and predictive oncology biomarkers.

Preparing for the Anatomic Pathology Board Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 70% (lowered to minimum 65% if pass rate under 70%)
  • Assessment: Two papers, each with 100–125 single-best-answer MCQs. Up to 10% additional unscored items may be added. Duration is not stated in the written blueprint.
  • Time limit: Not published by SCFHS
  • Exam / certification fees: Not published by SCFHS Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Anatomic Pathology Board: Suggested Study Strategy

1Prioritize surgical pathology subspecialties such as gastrointestinal, gynecologic, breast, and genitourinary pathology as surgical pathology accounts for 50% of the blueprint.
2Review standardized cytopathology reporting systems including The Bethesda System for cervical and thyroid, The Paris System for urine, and The Milan System for salivary glands.
3Review quality control procedures, pre-analytic specimen requirements like cold ischemia time, and critical value reporting standards.
4Consolidate knowledge on key immunohistochemical markers, cytogenetic translocations, and molecular mutations guiding diagnostic and therapeutic decisions.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format of the Saudi Board Anatomic Pathology final examination?

Two papers, each with 100–125 single-best-answer MCQs. Up to 10% additional unscored items may be added. Duration is not stated in the written blueprint.

What is the passing score for the Saudi Board Anatomic Pathology final written exam?

The passing score is set at 70%. In accordance with SCFHS guidelines, if fewer than 70% of candidates achieve this score, the passing mark is lowered one point at a time toward a 70% pass rate, but never lower than 65%.

Is this practice resource affiliated with or endorsed by the SCFHS?

No. This practice question bank is an independent study aid created by OpenExamPrep to assist candidates preparing for their written board examinations. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or officially connected to the Saudi Commission for Health Specialties.

Does this question bank cover the OSCE and structured oral components?

Two papers, each with 100–125 single-best-answer MCQs. Up to 10% additional unscored items may be added. Duration is not stated in the written blueprint.