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100+ Free QCHP/DHP Physician Exam Practice Questions

Pass your QCHP/DHP Qualifying Examination - Physician (CBT via Prometric) exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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A 30-year-old woman has irregular periods, hirsutism and difficulty conceiving. Ultrasound shows multiple peripheral ovarian follicles, and she has a raised LH:FSH ratio. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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Sample QCHP/DHP Physician Exam Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your QCHP/DHP Physician Exam exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents with crushing central chest pain for 40 minutes radiating to the left arm, with diaphoresis. ECG shows 2 mm ST-elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Which artery is most likely occluded?
A.Left anterior descending artery
B.Right coronary artery
C.Left circumflex artery
D.Left main coronary artery
Explanation: ST-elevation in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF) indicates an inferior wall STEMI, which is most commonly caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery (RCA) in the majority of patients with right-dominant circulation. Recognising the territory guides urgent reperfusion.
2A 24-year-old woman presents with palpitations, heat intolerance, weight loss and a fine tremor. Examination reveals a diffuse goitre and exophthalmos. Which single investigation best confirms the underlying cause?
A.Serum thyroglobulin
B.Thyroid ultrasound
C.TSH receptor antibodies (TRAb)
D.Radioactive iodine uptake scan
Explanation: The clinical picture of hyperthyroidism with a diffuse goitre and exophthalmos is classic for Graves' disease. TSH receptor antibodies (TRAb), which are stimulating autoantibodies, are highly specific and confirm the autoimmune aetiology. Suppressed TSH with raised free T4 establishes thyrotoxicosis.
3A 65-year-old man with COPD presents with worsening dyspnoea, increased sputum volume and purulence. He is alert with a respiratory rate of 24. ABG on air shows pH 7.34, PaCO2 7.8 kPa, PaO2 7.5 kPa. What is the most appropriate initial oxygen strategy?
A.High-flow 15 L/min via non-rebreathe mask
B.Controlled oxygen via 24-28% Venturi mask targeting SpO2 88-92%
C.No supplemental oxygen
D.Immediate intubation and ventilation
Explanation: In an acute COPD exacerbation with chronic CO2 retention, controlled oxygen via a Venturi mask targeting an SpO2 of 88-92% prevents worsening hypercapnia from loss of hypoxic drive and absorption atelectasis. The mild compensated respiratory acidosis is managed with controlled oxygen and bronchodilators first.
4A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of bloody diarrhoea, lower abdominal cramps and tenesmus. Colonoscopy shows continuous inflammation from the rectum proximally with loss of vascular pattern. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A.Crohn's disease
B.Ulcerative colitis
C.Ischaemic colitis
D.Pseudomembranous colitis
Explanation: Continuous mucosal inflammation extending proximally from the rectum, with bloody diarrhoea and tenesmus, is characteristic of ulcerative colitis. The continuous (non-skip) distribution and rectal involvement distinguish it from Crohn's disease.
5A 70-year-old man on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with an INR of 8.0 but no bleeding. What is the most appropriate management?
A.Continue warfarin at the same dose
B.Transfuse fresh frozen plasma urgently
C.Give intravenous protamine sulphate
D.Withhold warfarin and give oral vitamin K, recheck INR
Explanation: For an INR above 8 without bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and a small dose of oral vitamin K (e.g. 1-5 mg) given, with INR rechecked. This corrects over-anticoagulation while avoiding the bleeding risk of leaving the INR very high.
6A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, cold intolerance, constipation and weight gain. Her free T4 is low and TSH is markedly elevated. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
A.Levothyroxine
B.Carbimazole
C.Propranolol
D.Radioactive iodine
Explanation: Low free T4 with a high TSH indicates primary hypothyroidism. Levothyroxine (synthetic T4) is the first-line replacement, titrated to normalise TSH. Symptoms of cold intolerance, constipation and weight gain are typical.
7A 22-year-old man presents with acute severe asthma: too breathless to complete sentences, respiratory rate 30, peak flow 40% predicted. After high-flow oxygen, what is the most appropriate immediate pharmacological treatment?
A.Oral montelukast
B.Nebulised salbutamol plus ipratropium and systemic corticosteroids
C.Intravenous aminophylline as first-line
D.Antibiotics and discharge
Explanation: Acute severe asthma is treated with high-flow oxygen, repeated or continuous nebulised salbutamol, nebulised ipratropium bromide and early systemic corticosteroids (oral prednisolone or IV hydrocortisone). This combination relieves bronchospasm and reduces airway inflammation.
8A 60-year-old man with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes has an HbA1c of 8.2% despite diet and exercise. He has normal renal function and no cardiovascular disease. Which is the recommended first-line oral pharmacological agent?
A.Pioglitazone
B.Glibenclamide
C.Metformin
D.Insulin glargine
Explanation: Metformin is the first-line oral agent for type 2 diabetes in patients with adequate renal function. It reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis, is weight-neutral and does not cause hypoglycaemia, and has favourable cardiovascular safety.
9A 35-year-old woman presents with a sudden severe occipital headache described as 'the worst headache of my life', with neck stiffness and photophobia. CT head is performed within 4 hours and is normal. What is the next most appropriate step?
A.Reassure and discharge
B.Lumbar puncture after 12 hours looking for xanthochromia
C.Start prophylactic triptans
D.MRI brain in 2 weeks
Explanation: A thunderclap headache raises concern for subarachnoid haemorrhage. CT is highly sensitive early but not perfect; if negative, a lumbar puncture performed at least 12 hours after onset to detect xanthochromia (bilirubin from breakdown of red cells) is the next step.
10A 55-year-old man presents with a hot, swollen, exquisitely tender first metatarsophalangeal joint. Joint aspiration shows negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals under polarised light. What is the diagnosis?
A.Pseudogout
B.Gout
C.Septic arthritis
D.Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation: Negatively birefringent, needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals are diagnostic of gout. The classic presentation is acute podagra (first MTP joint involvement). Acute attacks are treated with NSAIDs, colchicine or corticosteroids.

About the QCHP/DHP Physician Exam Exam

The QCHP/DHP physician qualifying examination is the computer-based licensing test that general practitioners must pass to practise in Qatar, administered via Prometric on behalf of the Department of Healthcare Professions (DHP), MOPH. The official blueprint specifies 150 MCQs across Medicine, Obstetrics & Gynaecology, Paediatrics and Surgery with a 60% cut score. Candidates may attempt the exam up to five consecutive times.

Assessment

Single computer-based test of 150 single-best-answer MCQs covering Medicine (47), Obstetrics & Gynaecology (36), Paediatrics (37) and Surgery (30), per the official DHP blueprint.

Time Limit

3.5 hours per the DHP blueprint (the DHP web table lists 3 hours).

Passing Score

60% cut score for the General Practitioner exam (DHP).

Exam Fee

Prometric fee approximately USD 285 from 1 January 2026 (USD 238 in 2024-2025), plus DataFlow PSV and DHP application/licence fees. (Qatar Department of Healthcare Professions (DHP), MOPH (formerly QCHP))

QCHP/DHP Physician Exam Exam Content Outline

31%

Medicine

47 of 150 official items spanning internal medicine (cardiology, endocrinology, respiratory, gastroenterology, nephrology, neurology, haematology, rheumatology, infectious disease) plus patient safety, preventive medicine and ethics.

25%

Paediatrics

37 of 150 official items on common childhood illnesses, neonatology, respiratory and infectious disease, development, immunisation, paediatric emergencies and safeguarding.

24%

Obstetrics and Gynaecology

36 of 150 official items on antenatal care, pregnancy complications, labour emergencies, contraception, menstrual disorders and gynaecological conditions.

20%

Surgery

30 of 150 official items on acute abdomen, trauma, hernias, urological and orthopaedic emergencies, perioperative care and surgical safety.

How to Pass the QCHP/DHP Physician Exam Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 60% cut score for the General Practitioner exam (DHP).
  • Assessment: Single computer-based test of 150 single-best-answer MCQs covering Medicine (47), Obstetrics & Gynaecology (36), Paediatrics (37) and Surgery (30), per the official DHP blueprint.
  • Time limit: 3.5 hours per the DHP blueprint (the DHP web table lists 3 hours).
  • Exam fee: Prometric fee approximately USD 285 from 1 January 2026 (USD 238 in 2024-2025), plus DataFlow PSV and DHP application/licence fees.

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

QCHP/DHP Physician Exam Study Tips from Top Performers

1Allocate study time in proportion to the official blueprint: roughly one third Medicine, a quarter each to Paediatrics and Obstetrics & Gynaecology, and one fifth Surgery.
2Practise single-best-answer clinical vignettes against the timer, since 150 MCQs in about 3 to 3.5 hours leaves little over a minute per question.
3Use the DHP-listed references (Davidson's, Kumar & Clark, Nelson Essentials, Hacker & Moore, Bailey & Love) and revise patient safety, infection control and medical ethics, which the blueprint explicitly includes.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the QCHP/DHP physician qualifying exam and what is the passing score?

The General Practitioner qualifying exam is 150 single-best-answer MCQs with a 60% cut score, per the Qatar DHP. The official blueprint allots 47 questions to Medicine, 37 to Paediatrics, 36 to Obstetrics & Gynaecology and 30 to Surgery.

Who administers the exam and how is it delivered?

The exam is set by the Department of Healthcare Professions (DHP), MOPH (formerly QCHP) and delivered as a computer-based test through Prometric test centres worldwide. It is offered in English.

How much does the exam cost in 2026 and how many attempts are allowed?

The Prometric exam fee rose to approximately USD 285 from 1 January 2026 (it was USD 238 in 2024-2025), separate from DataFlow primary source verification and DHP application fees. Candidates may sit the exam up to five consecutive times.

What is the exam duration?

The official DHP General Practitioner blueprint states 3.5 hours; the DHP website summary table lists 3 hours. Candidates should confirm the current duration on their Prometric appointment confirmation.