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100+ Free OMSB Physician Exam Practice Questions

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A 35-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of profuse watery diarrhoea after eating at a buffet. He is afebrile with no blood in the stool and is mildly dehydrated. What is the most appropriate management for this likely viral or self-limiting gastroenteritis?

A
B
C
D
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Sample OMSB Physician Exam Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your OMSB Physician Exam exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old man with a 20-year history of type 2 diabetes presents with crushing central chest pain radiating to the left arm for 40 minutes. ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
A.Right coronary artery
B.Left anterior descending artery
C.Left circumflex artery
D.Left main coronary artery
Explanation: ST elevation in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF) indicates an inferior wall myocardial infarction, which in most people is supplied by the right coronary artery (right-dominant circulation in ~85%). Recognizing the territory guides reperfusion decisions and anticipation of complications such as bradyarrhythmias.
2A 24-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, and deep rapid breathing. Capillary glucose is 28 mmol/L, venous pH 7.10, bicarbonate 8 mmol/L, and ketones strongly positive. What is the most appropriate immediate first step in management?
A.Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride fluid resuscitation
B.Intravenous insulin bolus
C.Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
D.Oral rehydration with glucose solution
Explanation: Diabetic ketoacidosis management begins with aggressive isotonic fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume and tissue perfusion before or alongside an insulin infusion. Fluids alone lower glucose and improve acidosis while preventing the circulatory collapse that volume depletion can cause.
3A 65-year-old smoker presents with progressive exertional dyspnoea and chronic productive cough. Spirometry shows a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.62 with FEV1 of 55% predicted. Which finding best confirms the diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
A.FEV1/FVC ratio below 0.70 that is not fully reversible
B.Reduced total lung capacity
C.Restrictive pattern with preserved FEV1/FVC
D.Greater than 12% reversibility of FEV1 after bronchodilator
Explanation: COPD is defined spirometrically by a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio below 0.70 indicating persistent airflow limitation that is not fully reversible. The clinical picture of a smoker with chronic cough and dyspnoea supports the diagnosis.
4A 30-year-old woman presents with palpitations, weight loss, heat intolerance, and a fine tremor. Examination reveals a diffuse goitre and exophthalmos. TSH is suppressed and free T4 is elevated. Which test would best confirm the underlying cause?
A.TSH receptor antibodies
B.Thyroid ultrasound
C.Serum thyroglobulin
D.Fine-needle aspiration of the thyroid
Explanation: The combination of diffuse goitre, exophthalmos, and biochemical hyperthyroidism strongly suggests Graves disease, which is confirmed by detecting TSH receptor antibodies (TRAb). These stimulating autoantibodies are both diagnostic and pathogenic.
5A 70-year-old man presents with acute severe dyspnoea, pink frothy sputum, and bilateral basal crackles. Blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg and oxygen saturation is 86% on air. Which intervention provides the most rapid symptomatic relief in acute cardiogenic pulmonary oedema?
A.Intravenous furosemide and nitrate with oxygen
B.Intravenous fluid bolus
C.Oral beta-blocker
D.Intravenous antibiotics
Explanation: Acute cardiogenic pulmonary oedema is treated with sitting the patient up, high-flow oxygen, IV loop diuretic (furosemide) to reduce preload, and IV nitrate to reduce preload and afterload, particularly when blood pressure is elevated. This combination rapidly relieves pulmonary congestion.
6A 45-year-old man with a long history of alcohol use presents with haematemesis. He is hypotensive and tachycardic. Endoscopy reveals bleeding oesophageal varices. After resuscitation, which pharmacological agent is most appropriate to reduce portal pressure?
A.Intravenous terlipressin
B.Intravenous omeprazole
C.Oral propranolol
D.Intravenous tranexamic acid
Explanation: Terlipressin (a vasopressin analogue) is the first-line vasoactive agent in acute variceal bleeding; it causes splanchnic vasoconstriction, lowering portal venous pressure and bleeding. It is combined with endoscopic band ligation and prophylactic antibiotics.
7A 55-year-old man presents with sudden severe pain and swelling of the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the right foot. The joint is hot, red, and exquisitely tender. Serum urate is elevated. Which is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this acute attack if there are no contraindications?
A.A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
B.Allopurinol
C.Probenecid
D.Long-term low-dose colchicine alone
Explanation: This is acute gout (podagra). First-line treatment of the acute attack is an NSAID, colchicine, or a corticosteroid to control inflammation. NSAIDs are commonly chosen when there are no renal, cardiac, or gastrointestinal contraindications.
8A 60-year-old woman with hypertension presents for review. Her clinic blood pressure is consistently 160/95 mmHg despite lifestyle measures. She has no diabetes or chronic kidney disease and is of non-African descent. According to standard first-line guidance, which antihypertensive class is most appropriate to start?
A.Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
B.Thiazide-like diuretic
C.Beta-blocker
D.Alpha-blocker
Explanation: For a patient under 55 years or, as here, where the choice favours renin-system blockade, an ACE inhibitor is appropriate first-line therapy in hypertension without contraindications. ACE inhibitors are well tolerated and reduce cardiovascular events.
9A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pallor, and a smooth sore tongue. Blood film shows oval macrocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils; haemoglobin is low with a raised MCV. Serum vitamin B12 is markedly reduced. Which antibody is most associated with the underlying cause?
A.Anti-intrinsic factor antibody
B.Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody
C.Anti-mitochondrial antibody
D.Anti-smooth muscle antibody
Explanation: Macrocytic anaemia with hypersegmented neutrophils and low B12 in this setting suggests pernicious anaemia, an autoimmune gastritis. Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies are highly specific and impair B12 absorption.
10A 50-year-old man presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and fatigue. Fasting plasma glucose on two occasions is 8.2 mmol/L and 8.5 mmol/L. What is the diagnosis based on these values?
A.Diabetes mellitus
B.Impaired fasting glucose
C.Normal glucose tolerance
D.Reactive hypoglycaemia
Explanation: A fasting plasma glucose of 7.0 mmol/L or higher on two occasions (or with symptoms) confirms diabetes mellitus. Both readings here exceed that threshold in a symptomatic patient.

About the OMSB Physician Exam Exam

The OMSB physician licensing examination is the Prometric computer-based test required for doctors seeking to practise in the Sultanate of Oman. The physician/GP exam is typically 150 single-best-answer MCQs over 3 hours, covering core clinical medicine across internal medicine, pediatrics, obstetrics and gynaecology, surgery and emergencies. OMSB administers the exam and professional classification while the Ministry of Health issues the licence.

Assessment

Single-best-answer MCQs delivered as a computer-based test at Prometric/Pearson VUE centres; physician/GP exam is typically 150 questions. There is no negative marking, so every question should be answered.

Time Limit

3 hours (180 minutes) for the 150-MCQ physician exam.

Passing Score

Pass/Fail. OMSB does not publish an official passing percentage; an unofficial standard of approximately 60-65% is widely reported.

Exam Fee

Approximately USD 195-227 per attempt for physicians (verify the current fee with OMSB/Prometric/Pearson VUE). (Oman Medical Specialty Board (OMSB))

OMSB Physician Exam Exam Content Outline

50%

Internal Medicine

Cardiology, endocrinology, respiratory, gastroenterology, nephrology, neurology, rheumatology, haematology and infectious diseases through clinical vignettes.

15%

Pediatrics

Childhood infections, respiratory emergencies, dehydration, developmental milestones and congenital conditions.

13%

General Surgery and Emergency Medicine

Acute abdomen, trauma ABCDE, surgical emergencies, burns, anaphylaxis and advanced life support.

12%

Obstetrics and Gynaecology

Antenatal care, pre-eclampsia, gestational diabetes, obstetric haemorrhage, contraception and gynaecological disorders.

10%

Family Medicine, Primary Care and Oman Health Regulations

Preventive medicine, screening, dermatology, ophthalmology, psychiatry, plus Oman notifiable-disease reporting, immunisation and licensing/ethics.

How to Pass the OMSB Physician Exam Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Pass/Fail. OMSB does not publish an official passing percentage; an unofficial standard of approximately 60-65% is widely reported.
  • Assessment: Single-best-answer MCQs delivered as a computer-based test at Prometric/Pearson VUE centres; physician/GP exam is typically 150 questions. There is no negative marking, so every question should be answered.
  • Time limit: 3 hours (180 minutes) for the 150-MCQ physician exam.
  • Exam fee: Approximately USD 195-227 per attempt for physicians (verify the current fee with OMSB/Prometric/Pearson VUE).

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

OMSB Physician Exam Study Tips from Top Performers

1Prioritise internal medicine, which accounts for roughly half the exam: drill high-yield cardiology, endocrinology, respiratory and gastroenterology vignettes using single-best-answer practice questions.
2Practise timed sets at about one minute per question to build the pace needed for 150 MCQs in 3 hours, and since there is no negative marking, never leave a question blank.
3Review Oman-specific public health items such as notifiable communicable diseases, the national immunisation schedule, and OMSB/Ministry of Health licensing and consent rules.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the OMSB physician exam and how long is it?

The physician/general practitioner OMSB exam is commonly 150 single-best-answer MCQs to be completed in 3 hours. Some OMSB occupational exams use 70 or 100 MCQs (2 to 2.5 hours) depending on the specialty, so confirm your specific exam structure with OMSB.

Who administers the OMSB exam and where is it taken?

The Oman Medical Specialty Board (OMSB), established by Royal Decree 31/2006, sets the exam and professional classification. It is delivered as a computer-based test through Prometric and Pearson VUE, including at the Muscat test centre and authorised centres worldwide. The Ministry of Health issues the licence.

What is the passing score for the OMSB physician exam?

OMSB reports results as Pass or Fail and does not publish an official passing percentage. An unofficial threshold of roughly 60-65% is widely cited, and there is no negative marking, so candidates should attempt every question.

How much does the OMSB exam cost for physicians?

The Prometric/Pearson VUE exam fee for physicians has been reported at around USD 195-227 per attempt (it has varied over time). Always verify the current fee on the official OMSB, Prometric or Pearson VUE pages before booking.