100+ Free CAQ-Peds Practice Questions

Pass your NCCPA CAQ Pediatrics exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately

100+ Questions

100% Free

1 / 100

Question 1

Score: 0/0

A 14-year-old with type 1 diabetes presents in DKA. Per pediatric DKA protocols, what is the maximum recommended fluid bolus?

40-60 mL/kg over 1 hour

No bolus, only maintenance

10-20 mL/kg over 1 hour

100 mL/kg over 30 min

to track

Same family resources

More NCCPA Physician Assistant Exams Prep

Continue through related practice pages, study guides, comparisons, and articles from the same exam family.

Practice Pages

NCCPA PANCE Physician Assistant Practice200 questions NCCPA PANRE Physician Assistant Recertifying Exam Practice200 questions NCCPA CAQ Cardiovascular and Thoracic Surgery Practice100 questions NCCPA CAQ Dermatology Practice100 questions NCCPA CAQ Emergency Medicine Practice100 questions NCCPA CAQ Hospital Medicine Practice100 questions

FREE NCCPA PANRE Guide 2026: Pass Recertification on First Try15 min read PANCE Exam Guide 2026: Study by the 2025 NCCPA Blueprint9 min read

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: CAQ-Peds Exam

120

Total Items

NCCPA CAQ

3 hrs

Exam Time

NCCPA

$350

Exam Fee

NCCPA

3,000 hrs

Practice Required

Prior 6 yrs peds-PA

NCCPA CAQ-Peds is the PA subspecialty credential for pediatrics. 120 items, 3 hours, $350. Eligibility: 3,000 hours peds practice + 150 peds CME. Master CDC immunization schedule, Bright Futures milestones, GAS pharyngitis (Centor + RADT), bronchiolitis supportive care, and peds asthma stepwise GINA/NAEPP management.

Sample CAQ-Peds Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CAQ-Peds exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A term newborn at 1 minute of life has a heart rate of 120, slow irregular respirations, some flexion of extremities, grimace with stimulation, and a pink body with blue extremities. What is the Apgar score?

A.5

B.6

C.7

D.8

Explanation: Apgar: HR>100=2, slow irregular respirations=1, some flexion=1, grimace=1, acrocyanosis=1. Total = 6.

2A 36-hour-old breastfed term infant has a total serum bilirubin of 14 mg/dL. Per the Bhutani nomogram, this level is in the high-intermediate risk zone. What is the most appropriate next step?

A.Reassurance and routine follow-up in 1 week

B.Plot on AAP phototherapy nomogram and treat if at threshold

C.Immediately initiate exchange transfusion

D.Discontinue breastfeeding permanently

Explanation: Per the 2022 AAP hyperbilirubinemia guideline, total bilirubin should be plotted on the phototherapy threshold nomogram (accounting for gestational age and risk factors). Phototherapy is initiated if at or above threshold.

3At what age does the AAP recommend the first formal CCHD (critical congenital heart disease) screening using pulse oximetry?

A.Within the first hour of life

B.After 24 hours of age but before discharge

C.At the 2-week well-child visit

D.At the 2-month visit

Explanation: CCHD pulse oximetry screening is performed after 24 hours of life (or shortly before discharge if earlier) on the right hand and either foot. Earlier screening produces too many false positives due to transitional circulation.

4A 4-month-old infant born full-term who is exclusively breastfed has no vitamin D supplementation. What is the recommended daily dose of vitamin D for this infant?

A.100 IU

B.200 IU

C.400 IU

D.1000 IU

Explanation: AAP recommends 400 IU/day of vitamin D for all exclusively or partially breastfed infants beginning in the first few days of life and continuing until they consume at least 1L/day of vitamin D-fortified formula or milk.

5Which newborn screening test uses otoacoustic emissions (OAE) or auditory brainstem response (ABR)?

A.CCHD screening

B.Hearing screening

C.Phenylketonuria screening

D.Bilirubin screening

Explanation: Universal newborn hearing screening uses OAE or ABR. The EHDI 1-3-6 framework: screen by 1 month, diagnose by 3 months, intervene by 6 months.

6A 2-day-old infant has a positive newborn screen for phenylketonuria (PKU). What is the cornerstone of management?

A.Exchange transfusion

B.Lifelong phenylalanine-restricted diet

C.Daily levothyroxine

D.Pancreatic enzyme replacement

Explanation: PKU management requires lifelong dietary phenylalanine restriction and use of medical formula (Phe-free) to prevent intellectual disability. Sapropterin may be added in BH4-responsive cases.

7An infant of an Rh-negative mother is found to be Rh-positive at birth and has a positive direct Coombs test with rising bilirubin. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

A.Phototherapy

B.IV immunoglobulin (IVIG)

C.Exchange transfusion

D.Discontinue feeding

Explanation: Phototherapy is first-line for hemolytic hyperbilirubinemia. IVIG may be added per AAP if bilirubin continues to rise within 2-3 mg/dL of exchange threshold despite intensive phototherapy. Exchange transfusion is reserved for severe cases.

8What is the average expected weight gain for a healthy term infant during the first 3 months of life?

A.10-15 g/day

B.20-30 g/day

C.50-60 g/day

D.80-100 g/day

Explanation: Term infants gain approximately 20-30 g/day (about 1 oz/day) for the first 3 months. They typically double birth weight by 4-6 months and triple it by 12 months.

9By what age should a child be able to sit without support and transfer objects from one hand to another?

A.4 months

B.6 months

C.9 months

D.12 months

Explanation: By 6 months, infants typically sit without support, transfer objects hand-to-hand, and roll in both directions. These are key developmental milestones from CDC's developmental checklists.

10A breastfeeding mother asks how long the AAP recommends exclusive breastfeeding. What is the correct answer?

A.3 months

B.6 months

C.9 months

D.12 months

Explanation: AAP recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months, with continued breastfeeding alongside complementary foods for at least 1-2 years (now 'as long as mutually desired').

About the CAQ-Peds Exam

NCCPA Certificate of Added Qualifications in Pediatrics — for PAs in pediatric primary or subspecialty practice. Covers newborn/infant care, growth/development/behavior, acute illnesses (otitis, pharyngitis, bronchiolitis), infectious disease and immunizations (CDC schedule), pediatric emergencies (anaphylaxis, status), chronic disease (asthma, diabetes, sickle cell), mental health and adolescent care, nutrition, anticipatory guidance/procedures, and peds professional practice.

Questions

120 scored questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

Scaled (NCCPA-set)

Exam Fee

$350 (NCCPA)

CAQ-Peds Exam Content Outline

15%

Newborn / Infant

NRP, newborn screen, hyperbilirubinemia (Bhutani), feeding, hip exam (Ortolani/Barlow)

15%

Growth, Development, Behavior

Bright Futures milestones, ASQ, M-CHAT, growth curves, ADHD screening

15%

Acute Illnesses

AOM, GAS pharyngitis, viral URI, gastroenteritis, croup, UTI

10%

Infections & Immunization

CDC schedule, MMR/Varicella, Tdap, HPV, influenza, COVID, meningococcal, RSV

10%

Pediatric Emergencies

Anaphylaxis, status epilepticus, sepsis, intussusception, pyloric stenosis, NAT

10%

Chronic Conditions

Asthma (NAEPP/GINA), T1DM, SCD, cystic fibrosis, congenital heart disease

Mental Health & Adolescent

Depression PHQ-A, suicidality, eating disorders, contraception, HEEADSSS

Procedures & Anticipatory Guidance

Vision/hearing screen, lead, dental, anticipatory guidance, immunization counseling

Nutrition

Breastfeeding support, formula choices, complementary feeding, iron/Vit D, obesity

Pediatric Professional Practice

Confidentiality, mandatory reporting, vaccine refusal counseling, telehealth

How to Pass the CAQ-Peds Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Scaled (NCCPA-set)
Exam length: 120 questions
Time limit: 3 hours
Exam fee: $350

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CAQ-Peds Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize the CDC pediatric immunization schedule and catch-up rules — extremely high-yield

2Know Bright Futures milestones at 9, 18, 24, 30 months and use ASQ/M-CHAT for screening

3Master AAP febrile infant algorithm by age band (0-21, 22-28, 29-60 days)

4Drill peds emergencies: anaphylaxis (epi 0.01 mg/kg IM), intussusception (currant jelly stool, US), pyloric stenosis (olive mass, alkalosis)

5Know HPV/HEEADSSS adolescent confidentiality rules and minor consent for STI/contraception/MH

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the AAP fever workup approach by age?

AAP 2021 (Pantell) algorithm for well-appearing febrile infants ≥38°C: 0-21 days — full sepsis workup (CBC/CMP, blood/urine/CSF cultures), empiric antibiotics, admit. 22-28 days — inflammatory markers (procalcitonin, CRP, ANC), urine; LP and antibiotics by risk. 29-60 days — urine, blood, inflammatory markers; selective LP/antibiotics; observation often appropriate.

When is RSV prophylaxis indicated?

Two main strategies: (1) Maternal RSVpreF vaccine (Abrysvo) at 32-36 weeks gestation in seasonal months protects infants in first months. (2) Nirsevimab (Beyfortus) — long-acting monoclonal — for infants <8 months entering or born during RSV season; consider for high-risk children up to 24 months. Replaces palivizumab in most cases.

How is GAS pharyngitis diagnosed?

Centor/McIsaac criteria estimate pretest probability: tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical LAD, fever, no cough; subtract 1 for age >44, add 1 for age 3-14. Score 2-3: rapid antigen detection test (RADT); negative RADT → throat culture in children. Score ≥4: treat empirically vs RADT-confirmed. Treatment: penicillin or amoxicillin × 10 days.

How should I study for CAQ-Peds?

Plan 80-120 hours over 10-14 weeks. Work the NCCPA CAQ Pediatrics content blueprint, drill weighted-domain practice questions, complete required Category 1 CME, and submit experience requirements (typically ≥3,000 hours specialty practice in the prior 6 years and ≥150 specialty CME) before sitting the exam.