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100+ Free CAQ-Derm Practice Questions

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A 6-year-old develops a sandpapery, fine erythematous rash with circumoral pallor and a strawberry tongue 2 days after sore throat. What is the diagnosis and antibiotic?

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B
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Key Facts: CAQ-Derm Exam

120

Total Items

NCCPA CAQ

3 hrs

Exam Time

NCCPA

$350

Exam Fee

NCCPA

3,000 hrs

Practice Required

Prior 6 yrs derm-PA

NCCPA CAQ-Derm is the PA subspecialty credential for dermatology. 120 items, 3 hours, $350. Eligibility: 3,000 hours derm practice + 150 derm CME. Master AJCC melanoma staging by Breslow depth, BCC/SCC management (Mohs criteria), psoriasis biologics (TNFi, IL-17, IL-23), atopic dermatitis JAK inhibitors, and dermoscopy ABCDE.

Sample CAQ-Derm Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CAQ-Derm exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 16-year-old presents with non-inflammatory open and closed comedones on the forehead and nose without papules, pustules, or nodules. Which first-line topical agent specifically targets comedogenesis?
A.Topical clindamycin
B.Topical retinoid (tretinoin or adapalene)
C.Oral doxycycline
D.Oral isotretinoin
Explanation: Topical retinoids (tretinoin, adapalene, tazarotene) are first-line for comedonal acne because they normalize follicular keratinization and dissolve existing comedones. Antibiotics target inflammation, not comedones. Isotretinoin is reserved for severe nodulocystic disease.
2A 22-year-old woman with severe nodulocystic acne is starting isotretinoin. Which is required by the iPLEDGE REMS program before each monthly refill in a patient of childbearing potential?
A.LFTs and lipid panel only
B.Two negative pregnancy tests before starting and monthly negative tests with two forms of contraception
C.A baseline DEXA scan
D.Monthly CBC and BMP
Explanation: iPLEDGE requires two negative pregnancy tests before starting isotretinoin and a monthly negative pregnancy test with two forms of contraception (or abstinence) due to severe teratogenicity. Lipids/LFTs are also monitored but are not the unique iPLEDGE requirement.
3A 28-year-old woman has persistent jawline acne flaring premenstrually. Labs are normal. Which oral therapy targets the androgen-driven mechanism?
A.Spironolactone
B.Doxycycline
C.Minocycline
D.Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Explanation: Spironolactone (50-200 mg/day) is an antiandrogen that blocks androgen receptors and is highly effective for hormonal acne in adult women, particularly along the jawline. Antibiotics treat inflammatory acne but do not target hormones.
4Which combination of topical agents reduces antibiotic resistance when treating inflammatory acne?
A.Tretinoin plus tazarotene
B.Benzoyl peroxide combined with topical antibiotic
C.Two topical antibiotics
D.Salicylic acid plus glycolic acid
Explanation: Benzoyl peroxide should always accompany topical or oral antibiotic therapy for acne because it reduces emergence of resistant Cutibacterium acnes strains. Monotherapy with antibiotics is discouraged.
5A 45-year-old woman has central facial flushing, telangiectasias, and burning triggered by hot drinks and sunlight, but no papules or pustules. Which rosacea subtype is this?
A.Erythematotelangiectatic
B.Papulopustular
C.Phymatous
D.Ocular
Explanation: Erythematotelangiectatic rosacea presents with persistent central facial erythema, flushing, and telangiectasias without inflammatory lesions. Triggers include heat, alcohol, sun, and spicy foods. Brimonidine or oxymetazoline can transiently reduce erythema.
6A 50-year-old man has papulopustular rosacea. Which oral agent provides anti-inflammatory benefit at a sub-antimicrobial dose?
A.Doxycycline 40 mg modified-release daily
B.Amoxicillin 500 mg twice daily
C.Cephalexin 500 mg four times daily
D.Azithromycin 500 mg daily
Explanation: Sub-antimicrobial dose doxycycline (40 mg modified-release once daily) is FDA-approved for rosacea and provides anti-inflammatory effects without selecting for bacterial resistance. Topical metronidazole, azelaic acid, and ivermectin are also first-line.
7A 60-year-old man has progressive nasal enlargement with thickened, bulbous skin and patulous follicles. Which rosacea subtype and definitive treatment apply?
A.Phymatous; surgical/laser ablation
B.Erythematotelangiectatic; brimonidine
C.Papulopustular; oral doxycycline
D.Ocular; warm compresses
Explanation: Phymatous rosacea (rhinophyma when on the nose) features sebaceous hyperplasia and connective tissue thickening. Definitive therapy is surgical or laser (CO2) ablation; isotretinoin can reduce sebaceous gland activity early. Doxycycline alone does not reverse phyma.
8A 4-year-old has pruritic, ill-defined erythematous patches with lichenification in antecubital and popliteal fossae. Family history is positive for asthma. What is the diagnosis?
A.Contact dermatitis
B.Atopic dermatitis
C.Seborrheic dermatitis
D.Psoriasis
Explanation: Atopic dermatitis classically involves flexural surfaces in older children and is associated with the atopic triad (asthma, allergic rhinitis, eczema). Filaggrin mutations and Th2 inflammation drive the disease.
9Which topical corticosteroid is in class I (super-potent) and should not be used on the face or in skin folds?
A.Hydrocortisone 2.5%
B.Triamcinolone 0.1%
C.Clobetasol propionate 0.05%
D.Desonide 0.05%
Explanation: Clobetasol propionate 0.05% is class I (super-potent) and is reserved for thick plaques on body areas; it should not be used on face, axillae, or groin due to atrophy, telangiectasia, and HPA-axis suppression risk. Class VII includes hydrocortisone.
10A 6-year-old with atopic dermatitis on the face has not responded to low-potency steroids. Which steroid-sparing topical is appropriate?
A.Tacrolimus 0.03% ointment
B.Clobetasol 0.05% cream
C.Crisaborole 2% on eyelids
D.Topical 5-fluorouracil
Explanation: Topical calcineurin inhibitors (tacrolimus 0.03% in children, pimecrolimus) are steroid-sparing and approved for sensitive areas like the face. Crisaborole is also an option, but tacrolimus is the classic choice. Clobetasol is contraindicated on the face.

About the CAQ-Derm Exam

NCCPA Certificate of Added Qualifications in Dermatology — for PAs in dermatology practice. Covers neoplastic disease (BCC, SCC, melanoma — Breslow/AJCC), inflammatory disease (atopic, psoriasis, rosacea), infections (bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic), pigmented lesions and dermoscopy, derm pharmacology (biologics, retinoids), pediatric dermatology, hair/nail/mucosal, procedures (excision, Mohs, biopsies), professional practice, and connective-tissue disease.

Questions

120 scored questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

Scaled (NCCPA-set)

Exam Fee

$350 (NCCPA)

CAQ-Derm Exam Content Outline

20%

Neoplastic

BCC, SCC, melanoma (Breslow, AJCC), Mohs criteria, AKs, sentinel node, immunotherapy

20%

Inflammatory

Atopic dermatitis, psoriasis (PASI), rosacea, seborrheic dermatitis, lichen planus

15%

Infections

Bacterial (impetigo, cellulitis), viral (HSV, VZV, HPV), fungal (tinea, candida), scabies

8%

Pigmented Lesions / Dermoscopy

Nevi vs melanoma (ABCDE, ugly duckling), dermoscopy patterns, lentigo maligna

8%

Pharmacology

Topicals (TCS potency, TCI, Vit D), systemic (retinoids, MTX, cyclosporine), biologics (TNFi, IL-17/23/4-13)

8%

Pediatric Dermatology

Atopic dermatitis, infantile hemangioma (propranolol), molluscum, viral exanthems

8%

Hair / Nail / Mucosal

Androgenetic alopecia, alopecia areata (JAKi), nail psoriasis, oral lichen planus, vitiligo

7%

Procedures

Punch/shave/excisional biopsy, electrodessication, cryotherapy, intralesional steroids, Mohs

3%

Connective Tissue

Lupus (DLE/SCLE), dermatomyositis (Gottron, heliotrope), morphea, scleroderma

3%

Professional Practice

Documentation, sun-protection counseling, telederm, chaperones, specimen handling

How to Pass the CAQ-Derm Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Scaled (NCCPA-set)
  • Exam length: 120 questions
  • Time limit: 3 hours
  • Exam fee: $350

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CAQ-Derm Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master AJCC melanoma staging by Breslow depth + ulceration; SLN biopsy thresholds (>0.8 mm or ulcerated)
2Memorize Mohs AUC: H-zone face, recurrent, aggressive subtypes, immunocompromised
3Drill psoriasis biologic classes (TNFi vs IL-17 vs IL-23) and pre-treatment screening (TB, HBV)
4Know topical corticosteroid potency (Class I-VII) and atrophy/striae risk by anatomic site
5Apply ABCDE + ugly duckling sign and dermoscopy pattern recognition for pigmented lesions

Frequently Asked Questions

How is melanoma staged?

AJCC 8th edition stages melanoma by Breslow thickness (T), ulceration, mitotic rate, nodal involvement (N), and metastases (M). T1: ≤1.0 mm; T2: 1.01-2.0; T3: 2.01-4.0; T4: >4.0 mm. Sentinel lymph node biopsy considered for T1b-T4 (>0.8 mm or with ulceration). Stage IV uses immunotherapy (anti-PD-1: pembrolizumab/nivolumab; ipilimumab combo) or targeted therapy (BRAF + MEK inhibitors for BRAF V600E/K).

What are the Mohs appropriate use criteria?

Mohs micrographic surgery indicated for high-risk NMSC: anatomic high-risk areas (H zone: central face, eyelids, nose, lips, ears), recurrent tumors, ill-defined borders, aggressive subtypes (morpheaform, infiltrative, micronodular BCC; perineural SCC), large size (>2 cm trunk/extremities), immunocompromised patients, and tumors after radiation. AAD AUC criteria standardize selection.

What biologics treat moderate-to-severe psoriasis?

Class options: TNF inhibitors (etanercept, adalimumab, infliximab, certolizumab); IL-12/23 (ustekinumab); IL-17 (secukinumab, ixekizumab, brodalumab, bimekizumab); IL-23 (guselkumab, risankizumab, tildrakizumab). Pre-biologic screening: TB (PPD/IGRA), hepatitis B/C, baseline labs. IL-23 inhibitors increasingly favored for efficacy/safety. Apremilast (PDE-4) for milder cases.

How should I study for CAQ-Derm?

Plan 80-120 hours over 10-14 weeks. Work the NCCPA CAQ Dermatology content blueprint, drill weighted-domain practice questions, complete required Category 1 CME, and submit experience requirements (typically ≥3,000 hours specialty practice in the prior 6 years and ≥150 specialty CME) before sitting the exam.