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100+ Free GED RLA Practice Questions

Pass your GED Reasoning Through Language Arts exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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Key Facts: GED RLA Exam

145

Passing Score (out of 100–200)

GED Testing Service

150 minutes

Total Test Time

GED Testing Service Assessment Guide for Educators — RLA

35 minutes

Extended Response (Essay) Time

GED Testing Service

75% informational / 25% literary

Reading Passage Split

GED Testing Service Assessment Guide for Educators — RLA

~$36 per subject

Typical Test Fee

GED Testing Service (varies by state)

~45 items + 1 essay

Total Test Items

GED Testing Service

The GED RLA test is 150 minutes long, includes approximately 45 multiple-choice and technology-enhanced items plus a 35-minute Extended Response essay, and is scored on a 100–200 scale with 145 as the passing benchmark (per the GED Testing Service Assessment Guide for Educators). Reading passages are 75% informational texts (workplace documents, social studies, science) and 25% literary texts (fiction, poetry, memoir). Language Conventions and Editing questions test grammar, usage, punctuation, and sentence structure. The Extended Response requires reading two source passages and writing an evidence-based argument — it accounts for approximately 20% of the total RLA score. GED Testing Service, a joint venture of the American Council on Education (ACE) and Pearson, administers the exam in all 50 states at authorized testing centers.

Sample GED RLA Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your GED RLA exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Read the following passage, then answer the question. "The Civilian Conservation Corps (CCC) was a public work relief program that operated from 1933 to 1942 in the United States for unemployed, unmarried men from relief families as part of the New Deal. Originally for young men ages 18–25, the program eventually expanded to include World War I veterans. The CCC gave work to 3 million men during the program's nine-year existence. Recruits lived in work camps, earned money, and learned skills. They planted about 3 billion trees and helped develop more than 800 state parks." What is the main purpose of this passage?
A.To argue that the CCC was the most successful New Deal program
B.To inform readers about the history and accomplishments of the CCC
C.To persuade readers to support conservation programs today
D.To describe the daily life of CCC recruits in detail
Explanation: The passage presents factual information about what the CCC was, who it served, how long it lasted, and what it accomplished. This informational purpose — to inform — is distinct from arguing, persuading, or providing detailed personal narrative.
2Read the following passage, then answer the question. "The Civilian Conservation Corps (CCC) was a public work relief program that operated from 1933 to 1942 in the United States for unemployed, unmarried men from relief families as part of the New Deal. Originally for young men ages 18–25, the program eventually expanded to include World War I veterans. The CCC gave work to 3 million men during the program's nine-year existence. Recruits lived in work camps, earned money, and learned skills. They planted about 3 billion trees and helped develop more than 800 state parks." Which of the following is an explicit detail from the passage?
A.The CCC was more effective than other New Deal programs.
B.Many CCC recruits later served in World War II.
C.The CCC planted about 3 billion trees.
D.The CCC recruited men from rural areas specifically.
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that CCC recruits 'planted about 3 billion trees.' The other options are either not mentioned or not directly supported by the text.
3Read the following passage, then answer the question. "Urban heat islands occur when cities experience significantly warmer temperatures than nearby rural areas. The primary cause is the replacement of natural land cover with pavement, buildings, and other heat-absorbing surfaces. Dark roofing materials and asphalt absorb solar radiation throughout the day and release it as heat at night. This effect can increase city temperatures by 1–7 degrees Fahrenheit. Beyond discomfort, urban heat islands raise energy consumption for cooling, worsen air quality, and have been linked to increased heat-related illness and death." Which statement best summarizes the passage?
A.Pavement and dark roofs are the only reasons cities get hot in summer.
B.Urban heat islands make cities warmer than rural areas, causing energy, health, and air quality problems.
C.Heat-related illness is a serious problem that only affects urban residents.
D.Cities should plant more trees to lower their temperatures.
Explanation: A good summary captures the main idea and key effects. The passage explains what urban heat islands are (cities warmer than rural areas), what causes them (replacing natural surfaces), and the consequences (energy use, air quality, health impacts).
4Read the following passage, then answer the question. "Urban heat islands occur when cities experience significantly warmer temperatures than nearby rural areas. The primary cause is the replacement of natural land cover with pavement, buildings, and other heat-absorbing surfaces. Dark roofing materials and asphalt absorb solar radiation throughout the day and release it as heat at night. This effect can increase city temperatures by 1–7 degrees Fahrenheit. Beyond discomfort, urban heat islands raise energy consumption for cooling, worsen air quality, and have been linked to increased heat-related illness and death." Based on the passage, what can be inferred about dark roofing materials?
A.They are less expensive than light-colored roofing materials.
B.They contribute to higher nighttime temperatures in cities.
C.They cause more pollution than asphalt roads.
D.They have been banned in most major cities.
Explanation: The passage states that dark roofing materials and asphalt absorb solar radiation and release it as heat at night. This directly supports the inference that they contribute to higher nighttime temperatures in cities.
5Read the following passage, then answer the question. "Microplastics are tiny plastic fragments less than 5 millimeters in size. They enter the environment through multiple pathways: the breakdown of larger plastic waste, synthetic clothing fibers released during washing, and microbeads found in personal care products. Microplastics have now been detected in oceans, rivers, soils, drinking water, and even human blood. While research is ongoing, scientists are concerned about potential health effects including inflammation and chemical toxicity, particularly as plastics often carry harmful additives." Which sentence from the passage best supports the idea that microplastics are a widespread problem?
A.Microplastics are tiny plastic fragments less than 5 millimeters in size.
B.They enter the environment through multiple pathways.
C.Microplastics have now been detected in oceans, rivers, soils, drinking water, and even human blood.
D.Research is ongoing about potential health effects including inflammation.
Explanation: The sentence listing oceans, rivers, soils, drinking water, and human blood best demonstrates widespread presence because it shows microplastics are found across multiple, vastly different environments, including inside the human body.
6Read the following passage, then answer the question. "Microplastics are tiny plastic fragments less than 5 millimeters in size. They enter the environment through multiple pathways: the breakdown of larger plastic waste, synthetic clothing fibers released during washing, and microbeads found in personal care products. Microplastics have now been detected in oceans, rivers, soils, drinking water, and even human blood. While research is ongoing, scientists are concerned about potential health effects including inflammation and chemical toxicity, particularly as plastics often carry harmful additives." The word 'additives' in the final sentence most nearly means:
A.Natural ingredients found in organic materials
B.Substances added to a product to give it certain properties
C.Microorganisms that break down plastic waste
D.Chemical reactions caused by sunlight
Explanation: In context, 'additives' refers to substances intentionally incorporated into plastics during manufacturing to give them desired properties (such as flexibility, color, or durability). These additives can be harmful when they leach out of microplastic particles.
7Read the following passage, then answer the question. "The minimum wage in the United States has not been raised at the federal level since 2009, when it was set at $7.25 per hour. Since then, many states and cities have enacted their own higher minimum wages, with some jurisdictions reaching $15 or more per hour. Proponents argue that higher minimum wages reduce poverty and stimulate local economies because low-wage workers tend to spend additional income quickly. Opponents counter that higher wages force businesses — particularly small businesses — to cut staff, raise prices, or close entirely." Which organizational pattern does this passage primarily use?
A.Chronological order
B.Cause and effect
C.Compare and contrast (pros and cons)
D.Problem and solution
Explanation: The passage presents both sides of the minimum wage debate — proponents' arguments and opponents' counterarguments — using a compare-and-contrast structure to present pros and cons of raising the minimum wage.
8Read the following passage, then answer the question. "The minimum wage in the United States has not been raised at the federal level since 2009, when it was set at $7.25 per hour. Since then, many states and cities have enacted their own higher minimum wages, with some jurisdictions reaching $15 or more per hour. Proponents argue that higher minimum wages reduce poverty and stimulate local economies because low-wage workers tend to spend additional income quickly. Opponents counter that higher wages force businesses — particularly small businesses — to cut staff, raise prices, or close entirely." A person who opposes raising the minimum wage would most likely agree with which of the following?
A.Low-wage workers will spend any extra income quickly.
B.Small businesses may need to reduce their workforce if wage costs increase.
C.States should not be allowed to set their own minimum wages.
D.Federal minimum wage should be raised to match inflation.
Explanation: The passage states that opponents argue higher wages force businesses to cut staff, raise prices, or close. A person who holds this view would agree that businesses — especially small ones — may reduce their workforce in response to wage increases.
9Read the following excerpt from Frederick Douglass's 1852 speech "What to the Slave Is the Fourth of July?", then answer the question. "This Fourth of July is yours, not mine. You may rejoice, I must mourn. To drag a man in fetters into the grand illuminated temple of liberty, and call upon him to join you in joyous anthems, were inhuman mockery and sacrilegious irony." What is the central purpose of this excerpt?
A.To celebrate American independence alongside all citizens
B.To highlight the contradiction between American ideals of freedom and the reality of slavery
C.To encourage enslaved people to participate in Independence Day celebrations
D.To argue that the Constitution should be abolished
Explanation: Douglass uses the contrast between the Fourth of July celebration (a symbol of freedom) and his own position as a Black man in a slave society to expose the hypocrisy: celebrating liberty while slavery exists is 'inhuman mockery and sacrilegious irony.'
10Read the following excerpt from Frederick Douglass's 1852 speech "What to the Slave Is the Fourth of July?", then answer the question. "This Fourth of July is yours, not mine. You may rejoice, I must mourn. To drag a man in fetters into the grand illuminated temple of liberty, and call upon him to join you in joyous anthems, were inhuman mockery and sacrilegious irony." The phrase 'grand illuminated temple of liberty' is an example of which literary device?
A.Simile
B.Metaphor
C.Alliteration
D.Hyperbole
Explanation: Douglass compares the celebration of American liberty to a 'temple' — a sacred, grand place — without using 'like' or 'as.' This is a metaphor, comparing one thing directly to another to emphasize the loftiness and exclusivity of American ideals of freedom.

About the GED RLA Exam

The GED Reasoning Through Language Arts (RLA) test measures your ability to read closely, write clearly, and apply standard written English. It includes roughly 45 multiple-choice and technology-enhanced items drawn from informational (75%) and literary (25%) passages, plus a 35-minute Extended Response essay. The total test time is 150 minutes with a 10-minute break. A score of 145 or above (on a 100–200 scale) earns your GED RLA credential.

Questions

100 scored questions

Time Limit

150 minutes total (approximately 35 min Extended Response + 10-min break + ~75 min multiple-choice/technology-enhanced sections)

Passing Score

145 on a 100–200 scale; 165–174 = GED College Ready; 175+ = GED College Ready + Credit

Exam Fee

Approximately $36 per subject in most states; cost varies by state; some states offer free or subsidized testing (GED Testing Service (a joint venture of the American Council on Education and Pearson))

GED RLA Exam Content Outline

~55%

Reading Comprehension — Informational Texts

Main ideas, explicit details, inferences, text structure, author's purpose, argument analysis, and vocabulary in context from nonfiction passages including historical documents, workplace texts, and science/social studies articles

~20%

Reading Comprehension — Literary Texts

Theme, character analysis, figurative language (simile, metaphor, personification), literary devices, tone, and inference from fiction, poetry, drama, and memoir

~25%

Language Conventions and Editing

Grammar and usage (subject-verb agreement, pronoun case, verb tense), mechanics (comma, semicolon, apostrophe, quotation marks, capitalization), and sentence structure (run-ons, comma splices, dangling modifiers, parallel structure, sentence combining)

~20% of RLA score

Extended Response (Essay)

35-minute evidence-based argumentative essay analyzing two source passages on a controversial topic; scored on trait 1 (argument development), trait 2 (evidence and elaboration), and trait 3 (conventions of standard English) — NOT covered in this MCQ bank

How to Pass the GED RLA Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 145 on a 100–200 scale; 165–174 = GED College Ready; 175+ = GED College Ready + Credit
  • Exam length: 100 questions
  • Time limit: 150 minutes total (approximately 35 min Extended Response + 10-min break + ~75 min multiple-choice/technology-enhanced sections)
  • Exam fee: Approximately $36 per subject in most states; cost varies by state; some states offer free or subsidized testing

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

GED RLA Study Tips from Top Performers

1Read challenging nonfiction daily — news articles, opinion pieces, historical documents — to build the reading stamina and vocabulary needed for 400-900 word passages.
2Practice the GED Extended Response by reading paired argument passages and writing a 4-6 paragraph evidence-based essay in 35 minutes; focus on identifying which argument is better supported, not which side you personally agree with.
3For Language Conventions questions, memorize the top 10 tested rules: subject-verb agreement with collective nouns and indefinite pronouns, pronoun case (I vs. me, who vs. whom), comma splice vs. correct joining, semicolons, apostrophes for possession vs. contractions, parallel structure, and commonly confused words (affect/effect, than/then, whose/who's).
4When answering reading comprehension questions, always return to the passage — do not rely on background knowledge. Every correct answer must be supported by text evidence.
5Use the GED official free study guide and the GED Ready practice test at ged.com to calibrate your score; a 'likely to pass' result on GED Ready strongly predicts passing the actual test.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the passing score for the GED RLA test?

The passing score for GED Reasoning Through Language Arts is 145 on the 100–200 scale. Scores of 165–174 earn the GED College Ready designation, and scores of 175 or above earn GED College Ready + Credit, indicating college-level proficiency.

How long is the GED RLA test?

The GED RLA test is 150 minutes total. It is divided into three sections: Section 1 (approximately 35 minutes for the Extended Response essay), a 10-minute break, and Sections 2 and 3 (approximately 75 minutes combined for multiple-choice and technology-enhanced items).

What types of questions are on the GED RLA test?

The GED RLA includes multiple-choice questions (four options), fill-in-the-blank, drop-down (selecting the best word or phrase in a sentence), and drag-and-drop items — plus one Extended Response essay. All questions are passage-based; you read a text and answer questions about it.

What reading passages appear on the GED RLA?

About 75% of RLA passages are informational texts: workplace documents, science articles, social studies content, and historical documents (including U.S. founding documents). The remaining 25% are literary texts: fiction, poetry, drama, and memoir.

Does the GED RLA test include grammar and editing questions?

Yes. Language Conventions and Editing questions ask you to identify and correct errors in grammar (subject-verb agreement, pronoun case), punctuation (commas, semicolons, apostrophes), and sentence structure (run-ons, fragments, parallel structure, modifiers). These are often presented as sentences with underlined portions where you choose the best correction.

How should I prepare for the GED RLA Extended Response essay?

Practice reading two paired passages on a topic and identifying which argument is better supported. Focus on using evidence from the text (not personal opinions) to support your claim. The essay is scored on three traits: argument development, evidence use, and language/conventions. Each trait is scored 0–2, for a maximum of 6 points before being scaled.