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100+ Free NHRA Doctor (Bahrain) Practice Questions

Pass your NHRA Licensure Examination - General Practitioner/Doctor (CBT via Prometric) exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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A 45-year-old man presents with a reducible groin lump that appears on coughing and disappears on lying down, located above and medial to the pubic tubercle. What type of hernia is this most likely to be?

A
B
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Sample NHRA Doctor (Bahrain) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your NHRA Doctor (Bahrain) exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 60-year-old man presents with crushing retrosternal chest pain radiating to the jaw for 40 minutes. ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. He is hemodynamically stable. After oxygen if hypoxic, which medication should be given first?
A.Chewable aspirin 300 mg
B.Intravenous morphine
C.Oral metoprolol
D.Intravenous furosemide
Explanation: In acute ST-elevation MI, immediate chewable aspirin 300 mg is the first pharmacologic step because it provides rapid antiplatelet effect and reduces mortality. It should be given to all patients with suspected ACS unless contraindicated, ideally before reperfusion therapy is arranged.
2A 55-year-old smoker presents with progressive exertional dyspnea and chronic productive cough. Post-bronchodilator spirometry shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.60 and FEV1 65% predicted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Asthma
B.Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C.Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D.Pulmonary embolism
Explanation: A post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC below 0.70 that is not reversible, in a smoker with chronic symptoms, confirms COPD (GOLD criteria). FEV1 65% predicted places this in moderate (GOLD 2) airflow limitation.
3A 48-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has a clinic blood pressure consistently around 150/95 mmHg despite lifestyle measures. He has microalbuminuria. Which antihypertensive class is most appropriate as first-line therapy?
A.Thiazide diuretic
B.Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker
C.ACE inhibitor
D.Alpha-blocker
Explanation: In diabetics with albuminuria, an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) is first-line because it reduces intraglomerular pressure and slows progression of diabetic nephropathy, in addition to lowering blood pressure. This renoprotective benefit makes it the preferred class.
4A 35-year-old woman presents with a malar (butterfly) rash, photosensitivity, and symmetrical small-joint arthralgia. Investigations show positive ANA (1:320), anti-dsDNA antibodies, low C3 and C4 complement, and proteinuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Rheumatoid arthritis
B.Mixed connective tissue disease
C.Dermatomyositis
D.Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation: Malar rash, photosensitivity, arthritis, positive anti-dsDNA, low complement, and renal involvement are classic for systemic lupus erythematosus. Anti-dsDNA and low complement are highly specific and correlate with disease activity, especially lupus nephritis.
5A 70-year-old man with hypertension presents with palpitations. ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with absent P waves and a ventricular rate of 130/min. He is hemodynamically stable with no chest pain. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy?
A.Rate control with a beta-blocker or diltiazem
B.Immediate synchronized DC cardioversion
C.Intravenous adenosine
D.Start warfarin and discharge with no rate control
Explanation: This is atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response in a stable patient. Rate control with a beta-blocker or non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker is first-line, alongside assessment for anticoagulation using a stroke risk score such as CHA2DS2-VASc.
6A 28-year-old woman presents with weight loss, palpitations, heat intolerance, and a fine tremor. Examination reveals a diffuse goitre, lid lag, and bilateral exophthalmos. Which finding most strongly suggests Graves disease as the cause?
A.Diffuse goitre with bruit
B.Exophthalmos (Graves ophthalmopathy)
C.Fine tremor
D.Tachycardia
Explanation: Exophthalmos (Graves ophthalmopathy) and pretibial myxedema are specific extrathyroidal manifestations caused by TSH-receptor antibodies and are essentially diagnostic of Graves disease. Other thyrotoxic features are nonspecific and occur in any cause of hyperthyroidism.
7A 50-year-old man presents with severe acute epigastric pain radiating to the back, vomiting, and a serum lipase three times the upper limit of normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Acute cholecystitis
B.Perforated peptic ulcer
C.Acute pancreatitis
D.Inferior myocardial infarction
Explanation: Acute pancreatitis is diagnosed when two of three criteria are met: typical epigastric pain radiating to the back, serum lipase/amylase more than three times the upper limit of normal, or characteristic imaging. This patient meets the first two criteria.
8A 24-year-old man presents with fatigue and is found to have a microcytic hypochromic anemia (hemoglobin 9 g/dL, MCV 68 fL). Iron studies show low serum ferritin and low transferrin saturation with high total iron-binding capacity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Anemia of chronic disease
B.Sideroblastic anemia
C.Beta-thalassemia trait
D.Iron deficiency anemia
Explanation: Low ferritin is the most specific marker of iron deficiency; combined with low transferrin saturation and a high TIBC and microcytosis, the picture is diagnostic of iron deficiency anemia. The cause (e.g., GI blood loss, dietary) should then be sought.
9A 65-year-old woman develops sudden right-sided weakness and slurred speech that began 90 minutes ago. A non-contrast CT brain shows no hemorrhage. Blood glucose is normal and there are no contraindications. What is the most appropriate next step?
A.Administer intravenous thrombolysis (alteplase)
B.Start aspirin and admit for observation only
C.Give intravenous mannitol
D.Arrange outpatient carotid Doppler
Explanation: In acute ischemic stroke presenting within 4.5 hours with hemorrhage excluded and no contraindications, intravenous thrombolysis with alteplase improves functional outcomes and should be given as soon as possible. Time is brain, so reperfusion is prioritized.
10A 22-year-old man presents with fever, productive cough, and right lower-zone crackles. Chest X-ray confirms lobar consolidation. He has no comorbidities and a CURB-65 score of 0. What is the most appropriate management?
A.Hospital admission for intravenous antibiotics
B.Outpatient oral amoxicillin
C.Oral oseltamivir alone
D.Reassurance with no antibiotics
Explanation: Community-acquired pneumonia with a CURB-65 of 0 indicates low severity suitable for outpatient management with oral antibiotics such as amoxicillin. Risk stratification with CURB-65 guides the decision to treat at home versus admit.

About the NHRA Doctor (Bahrain) Exam

The NHRA Licensure Examination for general practitioners is Bahrain's mandatory medical licensing test, delivered as a Prometric computer-based exam of 150 case-based MCQs in a 3-hour seating. It assesses clinical competence across internal medicine, surgery, pediatrics, obstetrics and gynecology, emergency medicine and primary care, plus Bahrain health regulations.

Assessment

150 single-best-answer MCQs, predominantly case-based clinical vignettes across the core specialties of medicine.

Time Limit

3-hour seating (about 2.5 hours of actual exam time)

Passing Score

60% (NHRA standard pass mark for licensure exams; sources cite ~60-65%)

Exam Fee

Approximately BHD 150 for the physician exam; DataFlow/QuadraBay PSV is a separate ~BHD 110-120. Confirm current fees on nhra.bh. (Bahrain National Health Regulatory Authority (NHRA))

NHRA Doctor (Bahrain) Exam Content Outline

30%

Internal Medicine

Cardiology, endocrinology, respiratory, gastroenterology, nephrology, neurology, rheumatology, hematology and infectious disease - the highest-yield section.

12%

Surgery

General, vascular and orthopedic surgery, the acute abdomen, trauma and common operative indications.

12%

Pediatrics

Child health, development, immunization, common infections, neonatology and pediatric emergencies.

12%

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Antenatal care, labor, obstetric emergencies, contraception and common gynecological conditions.

12%

Emergency Medicine

Resuscitation, acute presentations, toxicology, trauma and management of life-threatening emergencies.

8%

Psychiatry

Mood, anxiety and psychotic disorders, risk assessment and substance use in primary care.

8%

Family and Preventive Medicine

Primary care, health promotion, screening, vaccination and evidence-based practice with basic biostatistics.

6%

Bahrain Health Regulations and Ethics

NHRA licensing rules, professional conduct, consent, confidentiality and medical ethics for practice in Bahrain.

How to Pass the NHRA Doctor (Bahrain) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 60% (NHRA standard pass mark for licensure exams; sources cite ~60-65%)
  • Assessment: 150 single-best-answer MCQs, predominantly case-based clinical vignettes across the core specialties of medicine.
  • Time limit: 3-hour seating (about 2.5 hours of actual exam time)
  • Exam fee: Approximately BHD 150 for the physician exam; DataFlow/QuadraBay PSV is a separate ~BHD 110-120. Confirm current fees on nhra.bh.

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

NHRA Doctor (Bahrain) Study Tips from Top Performers

1Prioritize internal medicine - especially cardiology, diabetes, hypertension and respiratory disease - as it is the dominant and highest-yield section of the exam.
2Practice with case-based single-best-answer MCQs under timed conditions, since you have only about one minute per question on the real exam.
3Because NHRA shares the Prometric format and core subjects with other Gulf exams (DHA, DOH, QCHP, SMLE), Gulf-style MCQ banks plus a review of NHRA licensing and ethics rules give strong cross-preparation.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the NHRA Bahrain doctor exam and how long is it?

The NHRA general practitioner exam consists of 150 single-best-answer MCQs, mostly case-based clinical vignettes, completed within a 3-hour Prometric seating (about 2.5 hours of actual exam time).

What is the passing score for the NHRA licensure exam?

NHRA applies a 60% pass mark to its licensure examinations. Preparation sources commonly cite a benchmark of around 60-65%, so candidates are advised to aim consistently above 70% in practice tests.

Who administers the NHRA exam and how many attempts are allowed?

The exam is delivered by Prometric at a designated test center. An applicant may appear for the licensure examination up to four consecutive times within a maximum of three years from the first attempt.

What do I need to do before sitting the NHRA exam?

Candidates must complete Primary Source Verification (via DataFlow or QuadraBay) and submit an online NHRA license application. Once approved, an eligibility code is issued to register for the Prometric exam.