Free MS-102 Exam Flashcards

Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the Exam MS-102: Microsoft 365 Administrator (Microsoft 365 Certified: Administrator Expert). See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.

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Which DNS record proves to Microsoft 365 that you own a custom domain you are adding to a tenant?

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Card 1 of 50Deploy and manage a Microsoft 365 tenant

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About These MS-102 Flashcards

These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the Exam MS-102: Microsoft 365 Administrator (Microsoft 365 Certified: Administrator Expert). Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.

Topics Covered

Deploy and manage a Microsoft 365 tenant14 cards
Implement and manage Microsoft Entra identity and access14 cards
Manage security and threats by using Microsoft Defender XDR16 cards
Manage compliance by using Microsoft Purview6 cards

Complete Flashcard Reference

Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.

Which DNS record proves to Microsoft 365 that you own a custom domain you are adding to a tenant?

A TXT record with the value MS=msNNNNNNNN at the domain root; if the registrar cannot host TXT records, Microsoft accepts a special verification MX record instead. Microsoft 365 queries that record to confirm you control the DNS zone. The mail-routing MX, autodiscover CNAME, and SPF records added afterwards configure services; they do not prove ownership.

What initial domain does every new Microsoft 365 tenant receive, and can it be removed?

Every tenant is created with an onmicrosoft.com initial domain such as contoso.onmicrosoft.com. It cannot be deleted or renamed. Adding a verified custom domain and making it the default changes the addresses new users receive, but the onmicrosoft.com domain remains permanently as a fallback.

In the Microsoft 365 admin center, where do you see current outages versus advance notice of upcoming changes?

Service health shows incidents and advisories affecting your tenant right now, including which services are degraded. Message center announces planned changes, new features, and deprecations before they ship. Service health answers whether something is broken; Message center answers what is about to change.

What does Network connectivity insights in the Microsoft 365 admin center measure?

It samples real client traffic to score how well each office location reaches Microsoft 365, reporting latency, egress location, and whether traffic is backhauled instead of broken out locally. You must define office locations for results to be attributed correctly. It grades network design, not service availability.

What does Microsoft 365 Backup protect, and how is it billed?

It backs up and restores Exchange Online mailboxes, OneDrive accounts, and SharePoint sites inside your own tenant with fast point-in-time restore. It is a pay-as-you-go service billed through a linked Azure subscription, so you must attach an Azure subscription before you can enable it.

How long is a deleted Microsoft 365 user recoverable, and what happens after that?

A deleted user stays in the Deleted users container for 30 days and can be restored with its licenses, group memberships, and mailbox intact. After 30 days the object is permanently purged and cannot be recovered, so you would have to create a new account from scratch.

When does a shared mailbox need its own Exchange Online license?

A shared mailbox is free up to 50 GB. It requires a license once it exceeds 50 GB, or when you want to place it on litigation hold or enable an in-place archive. Licensing is driven by capacity and hold features, never by how many people open it.

What is group-based licensing, and what happens when a user leaves the group?

You assign product licenses to a security group, mail-enabled group, or Microsoft 365 group and Microsoft Entra ID applies them to every direct member automatically, including new members. Removing a user from the group removes the inherited license. Nested groups are not supported: only first-level members are licensed.

Which Microsoft Graph PowerShell cmdlet opens an authenticated session, and how do you request permissions?

Connect-MgGraph starts the session, and you list the permission scopes you need with the Scopes parameter, for example Connect-MgGraph -Scopes 'User.ReadWrite.All'. Consent is granted per scope. Cmdlets such as Get-MgUser and New-MgGroup then run inside that session.

Which of the four Microsoft 365 group types provisions a shared mailbox and a SharePoint site?

Only a Microsoft 365 group. It creates a shared mailbox, calendar, SharePoint site, and Planner plan for its members. Security groups grant access to resources, distribution groups only relay mail to members, and mail-enabled security groups do both but provision nothing.

What does an administrative unit do in Microsoft Entra ID?

An administrative unit is a container of users, groups, or devices that scopes a role assignment to just that subset. A Helpdesk Administrator scoped to the Seattle unit can reset passwords only for Seattle members. It narrows an existing role's reach and never grants new permissions.

What is the difference between an eligible and an active role assignment in Privileged Identity Management?

An active assignment grants the role immediately with no activation step, either permanently or between start and end dates. An eligible assignment grants nothing until the user activates it, optionally requiring multifactor authentication, a justification, approval, and a ticket number, and the activation expires after the maximum duration you set. Eligible assignments deliver just-in-time admin access. PIM requires Microsoft Entra ID P2 or Microsoft Entra ID Governance.

Which role suits someone who must view every admin setting but change nothing?

Global Reader. It reads everything a Global Administrator can across the Microsoft 365 admin center, Exchange, SharePoint, Teams, the Defender portal, and the Azure portal but cannot change anything. Assigning Global Administrator for read-only work breaks least privilege. Known gaps: Global Reader cannot see Secure Score or run content search in the Defender portal, and Microsoft Purview does not support the role.

Why keep a Privileged Authentication Administrator assigned even though Microsoft says to minimize Global Administrators?

A locked-out Global Administrator's password can only be reset by another Global Administrator or by a Privileged Authentication Administrator. Keeping that role assigned preserves a recovery path without inflating the number of Global Administrators, which Microsoft advises keeping as low as possible.

What does IdFix do, and when should you run it?

IdFix scans on-premises Active Directory for object errors that would break directory synchronization, such as duplicate proxy addresses or user principal names, invalid characters, and blank required attributes, and proposes edits. Run it before the first sync and after any bulk change, so data is cleaned at the source.

Which sync tool can connect several disconnected Active Directory forests to one Microsoft Entra tenant without a forest trust?

Microsoft Entra Cloud Sync. Each lightweight provisioning agent talks to its own forest and all of them report to the same cloud provisioning service, so no trust or network path between forests is needed. Entra Connect Sync requires every forest to be reachable from one sync server.

Where does configuration live in Microsoft Entra Cloud Sync compared with Entra Connect Sync?

Cloud Sync keeps all scoping rules and attribute mappings in the cloud, managed from the Microsoft Entra admin center, with on-premises agents acting only as bridges. Entra Connect Sync stores its sync rules on the on-premises server, so changes need access to that specific server.

What does Microsoft Entra Connect Health monitor?

It reports the health of hybrid identity infrastructure: sync service status, sync errors and latency, AD FS sign-in volume and failures, and AD DS domain controller health. It is a monitoring and alerting layer only, never a synchronization engine, and it requires agents on the servers it watches.

Why must a user's on-premises UPN suffix match a verified domain before you synchronize them?

Microsoft Entra ID accepts only a user principal name whose suffix is a verified custom domain in the tenant. An unroutable suffix such as contoso.local is rewritten to the onmicrosoft.com domain, so the user signs in with an unexpected name. Add the routable suffix in AD Domains and Trusts first.

What is the difference between password hash synchronization and pass-through authentication?

Password hash sync copies a hash of the on-premises password hash into Microsoft Entra ID, so Entra validates sign-ins itself and keeps working when on-premises Active Directory is unreachable. Pass-through authentication stores no password in the cloud and validates every sign-in against a domain controller through an agent.

What does password writeback enable, and what does it require?

Password writeback pushes a password that a hybrid user changed or reset in the cloud back into on-premises Active Directory, so both directories stay in step and self-service password reset works for synced accounts. It requires Microsoft Entra ID P1 or P2, or Microsoft 365 Business Premium, plus writeback enabled in Entra Connect Sync or Cloud Sync.

What is the size limit of the Microsoft Entra custom banned password list, and what belongs in it?

It holds a maximum of 1,000 terms. Add only organization-specific base terms such as brand names, product names, and the headquarters city. Entra normalizes passwords and uses fuzzy matching, so variants and combinations are blocked automatically; listing spellings like Contoso!1 simply wastes entries.

Which licenses cover the global banned password list versus the custom banned password list?

The global banned password list applies to every tenant with Microsoft Entra ID Free for cloud-only users and cannot be disabled. The custom banned password list requires Microsoft Entra ID P1 or P2. Extending either list to users synchronized from on-premises AD DS also requires P1 or P2.

Which two components does on-premises Microsoft Entra Password Protection need, and what are its two modes?

A proxy service on a domain-joined server that relays policy down from Microsoft Entra ID, and a DC agent installed on every writable domain controller that enforces it. The modes are Audit, which only logs what would have been blocked, and Enforced, which actually rejects weak passwords.

What are the two halves of a Conditional Access policy?

Assignments define who and what the policy targets: users and groups, target resources, network location, device platform, client app, and risk conditions. Access controls define the outcome: grant with requirements such as multifactor authentication or a compliant device, block outright, or apply session controls.

What does report-only mode do to a Conditional Access policy?

The policy is evaluated on every matching sign-in and the result is written to the sign-in logs, but grant and block controls are never enforced. It lets you measure the blast radius before turning a policy on. Pair it with the What If tool to test a hypothetical sign-in.

What is the difference between sign-in risk and user risk in Microsoft Entra ID Protection?

Sign-in risk scores one authentication attempt using signals such as anonymous IP address, atypical travel, or an unfamiliar sign-in property. User risk scores the account itself, driven mainly by leaked credentials or confirmed compromise. The usual responses are multifactor authentication for sign-in risk and a secure password change for user risk.

Why require multifactor authentication through Conditional Access rather than legacy per-user MFA settings?

Conditional Access applies multifactor authentication conditionally by user, application, network, device state, and risk, and supports report-only rollout plus named-location and break-glass exclusions. Legacy per-user MFA is an all-or-nothing flag on the account with no context. Conditional Access requires Microsoft Entra ID P1.

What does Microsoft Secure Score measure, and what does it not measure?

It scores your configured security posture across identity, devices, apps, and data, awarding points as you adopt recommended controls and comparing your score to the achievable maximum. It measures configuration only. Whether you were actually attacked is answered by incidents and alerts elsewhere in the Defender portal.

What does Microsoft Security Exposure Management add on top of Secure Score?

It unifies exposure data across assets into attack surface maps and attack paths, showing how an attacker could chain weaknesses to reach critical assets, and tracks progress through initiatives and exposure metrics. Secure Score rates control adoption; Exposure Management shows which routes to your crown jewels remain open.

What is the relationship between an alert and an incident in Microsoft Defender XDR?

An alert is a single detection from one Defender workload. Defender XDR correlates related alerts across email, endpoints, identities, and cloud apps into one incident with a shared timeline and evidence graph, so analysts triage one attack story instead of dozens of disconnected alerts.

How far back can advanced hunting query native Defender XDR data, and in what language?

Up to 30 days of raw data, queried with Kusto Query Language. A single query returns at most 100,000 rows, times out after 10 minutes, and is capped at 64 MB of results. Onboarding a Microsoft Sentinel workspace extends retention beyond the 30-day window.

How do you turn an advanced hunting query into an automatic response?

Save it as a custom detection rule. The rule runs on a schedule, raises an alert or incident whenever the query returns results, and can apply response actions such as isolating a device or disabling a user. The query must return the entity columns the rule needs to act on.

What are the four unknown malware response actions in a Safe Attachments policy?

Off, which skips detonation entirely and is the default in a new custom policy; Monitor, which delivers the message and tracks what happens; Block, which quarantines the message and is the value used by Built-in protection and the Standard and Strict presets; and Dynamic Delivery, which delivers the body immediately with attachment placeholders until scanning finishes.

Who is protected by Safe Attachments if you never create a Safe Attachments policy?

Everyone. There is no default Safe Attachments policy, but the Built-in protection preset security policy applies Safe Attachments to all recipients who are not already covered by the Standard preset, the Strict preset, or a custom policy. Custom policies take precedence over Built-in protection.

What is the key limitation of Dynamic Delivery in Safe Attachments?

It works only for Exchange Online mailboxes. Recipients whose mailboxes remain on-premises get no attachment placeholders, and it also cannot replace attachments in public folder messages or messages that rules move out of the mailbox. Choose Block instead when recipients are not fully in Exchange Online.

What does Safe Links do that anti-phishing policies alone cannot?

It rewrites URLs and re-checks them at the moment of click, so a link that was clean at delivery but weaponized hours later is still blocked. Anti-phishing evaluates the message when it arrives. Safe Links also protects clicks in Teams, Office apps, and links inside supported attachments.

What are the preset security policies in Defender for Office 365, and how do they rank?

Built-in protection is the baseline that covers everyone, then Standard, then Strict, which is the most aggressive. When a recipient matches more than one policy, the order applied is Strict, then Standard, then custom policies by priority number, and only then Built-in protection or the default policies. Custom policies therefore beat Built-in protection but lose to Standard and Strict.

What is zero-hour auto purge, and where can it act?

ZAP retroactively moves already-delivered messages to quarantine or the Junk Email folder when Microsoft later reclassifies the content as malware, phishing, or spam, using the action set in your anti-malware and anti-spam policies. It works only in Exchange Online cloud mailboxes, not on-premises mailboxes, looks back 48 hours, and can act on messages in other folders including Deleted Items.

What is attack simulation training for, and which plan includes it?

It sends benign simulated phishing to your own users, measures who clicks a link or submits credentials, and automatically assigns targeted training to those who fail. It is a Defender for Office 365 Plan 2 feature. Use it to measure human risk, not to test whether the mail filters work.

Which Defender for Endpoint onboarding method has a hard device limit, and what is it?

The local onboarding script is supported for up to 10 devices. Beyond that use Microsoft Intune or another MDM, Microsoft Configuration Manager, Group Policy, or the VDI scripts. Every onboarding package is downloaded from Settings, then Endpoints, then Onboarding in the Microsoft Defender portal.

What does Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management give you beyond a list of CVEs?

It continuously inventories software and configurations on onboarded devices, ranks weaknesses by real exposure and breach likelihood rather than raw severity, and lets you send a remediation request straight to Microsoft Intune as a task for the IT team. It connects findings to owners and actions.

How does Cloud Discovery find shadow IT, and how do app connectors differ?

Cloud Discovery parses firewall and proxy traffic logs, or telemetry from Defender for Endpoint, and matches them against a catalog that scores each app on more than 90 risk indicators. App connectors instead use the vendor's own APIs to look inside a sanctioned app at its files, accounts, and activities.

What can Conditional Access App Control do that a Conditional Access policy alone cannot?

It routes the user's session through Defender for Cloud Apps as a reverse proxy, so you can inspect and control actions inside the live session: block downloads to unmanaged devices, block cut, copy, and paste, or apply a sensitivity label on download. Conditional Access alone only decides at sign-in.

What four components make up a pattern in a custom sensitive information type in Microsoft Purview?

A primary element such as a regular expression, optionally with a checksum or date validator, a keyword list, a keyword dictionary, or a function; optional supporting elements such as nearby keywords that corroborate the match; a character proximity window; and a confidence level for the pattern. Requiring corroborating evidence close to the primary match is what keeps false positives under control.

What is the scoping difference between a retention policy and a retention label?

A retention policy is applied to locations such as all Exchange mailboxes or all SharePoint sites and implicitly covers everything in them. A retention label is applied to an individual item, manually or automatically, and travels with that item. An item can carry only one retention label at a time.

State the four principles of retention in order of precedence.

Retention wins over deletion; the longest retention period wins; explicit wins over implicit for deletions, so a retention label's delete action beats any retention policy's; and the shortest deletion period wins. Each principle acts as the tie-breaker for conflicts the one above it could not resolve.

Where in the sensitivity label list does your most restrictive label belong, and why?

At the bottom. Order sets priority, and the label lowest in the list carries the highest priority and the highest order number. That ordering is what lets Purview recognize a downgrade and prompt for justification, and it decides the winner when auto-labeling matches more than one label.

What is the difference between Content explorer and Activity explorer in Microsoft Purview?

Content explorer shows the current state: which items right now carry a given sensitivity label, retention label, or sensitive information type, and where they live. Activity explorer shows history: labels applied, changed, downgraded, or removed, and data loss prevention matches, over time.

What must be true of a Windows device before an Endpoint DLP policy can act on it?

The device must be onboarded to Microsoft Purview, using the same onboarding as Microsoft Defender for Endpoint, and the user must be signed in with a work or school account. Only then can the policy audit or block actions such as copying a file to USB, printing, or uploading to an unapproved site.

Frequently Asked Questions

Is the MS-102 exam being retired?

Yes. Microsoft has posted a retirement notice on the exam page, the study guide, and the certification page stating that Exam MS-102 retires on November 30, 2026 at 11:59 PM Central Standard Time. The Microsoft 365 Certified: Administrator Expert certification retires with it, and after that date the certification can no longer be earned or renewed. If you already hold a valid certification, plan your remaining renewal accordingly.

How many questions are on the MS-102 exam and how long is it?

Microsoft does not publish a fixed item count for MS-102. Its exam duration page states that most Microsoft certification exams contain 40-60 questions and that the number can vary. Associate and expert role-based exams without labs allow 100 minutes of exam time within a 120-minute seat time; that rises to 120 minutes of exam time and a 140-minute seat time if the exam includes labs. Microsoft does not publish which exams contain labs.

What is the passing score for MS-102?

A score of 700 or greater is required to pass. Microsoft reports scores on a scale of 1 to 1,000, and the score is scaled rather than a raw percentage, so 700 does not mean 70 percent of items answered correctly. Your score report shows performance by skill area but not raw item counts.

Do I need another certification before I can take MS-102?

No. There is no enforced prerequisite for sitting the MS-102 exam itself. To be awarded the Microsoft 365 Certified: Administrator Expert credential, however, you must also hold at least one of four associate certifications listed on the certification page: Microsoft 365 Certified: Endpoint Administrator Associate, Microsoft 365 Certified: Teams Administrator Associate, Microsoft Certified: Identity and Access Administrator Associate, or Microsoft Certified: Information Security Administrator Associate.

How soon can I retake MS-102 if I fail?

Microsoft's retake policy for role-based exams requires a 24-hour wait after a first failure, then a 14-day waiting period between all subsequent attempts. You may not take the same exam more than five times in a 12-month period measured from your first attempt, and you must pay for each attempt. A waiver of the waiting period is granted only for internet connectivity or equipment failures with a Pearson VUE case number.

What are the MS-102 skill areas and their weights?

As of the April 28, 2026 update, the official study guide lists four skill areas: Deploy and manage a Microsoft 365 tenant (25-30 percent), Implement and manage Microsoft Entra identity and access (25-30 percent), Manage security and threats by using Microsoft Defender XDR (30-35 percent), and Manage compliance by using Microsoft Purview (10-15 percent). Note that the exam detail page currently shows a different, conflicting set of percentages; Microsoft directs candidates to the study guide for the skills measured, so treat the study guide as authoritative.

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