Free CIL MT Exam Flashcards
Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the Coal India Limited Management Trainee Computer-Based Test (CBT-26). See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.
What is the official CIL MT CBT-26 question and time structure?
One 3-hour sitting contains 200 MCQs: 100 in Paper I and 100 in Paper II. Each paper carries 100 marks.
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About These CIL MT Flashcards
These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the Coal India Limited Management Trainee Computer-Based Test (CBT-26). Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.
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Complete Flashcard Reference
Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.
What is the official CIL MT CBT-26 question and time structure?
One 3-hour sitting contains 200 MCQs: 100 in Paper I and 100 in Paper II. Each paper carries 100 marks.
Which four areas does CIL officially name for Paper I?
General Knowledge/Awareness, Reasoning, Numerical Ability, and General English. CIL does not publish a weight or item count for each area.
How should you choose what to study for CIL MT Paper II?
Use the official syllabus for the one discipline selected in your application. Paper II is discipline-specific; there is no single syllabus shared by all nine CBT-26 disciplines.
What minimum score is required in each CIL MT paper?
UR/EWS: 40 marks; OBC-NCL: 35; SC/ST/PwD: 30. The applicable floor must be cleared separately in Paper I and Paper II.
What marking rule applied to the completed CIL MT CBT under Advertisement No. 03/2026?
A correct answer earned 1 mark, while a wrong or blank answer earned 0; there was no negative marking. Future-cycle applicants must re-check the new official advertisement rather than assume this rule continues.
Does clearing both CIL MT paper floors guarantee selection?
No. Final selection uses CBT merit and has no interview, but vacancies, category and discipline ranking, document verification, and the initial medical examination still apply.
Which part of the Constitution of India contains the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Part IV. The Directive Principles guide governance but are not enforceable by courts in the same way as Fundamental Rights.
Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
The President of India. The CAG audits Union and state government accounts and reports as provided by the Constitution and law.
What does the cash reserve ratio require banks to hold?
A prescribed share of their net demand and time liabilities as cash reserves with the Reserve Bank of India.
Which constitutional amendment added Fundamental Duties?
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, added Fundamental Duties in Part IVA of the Constitution.
In which house of Parliament can a Money Bill be introduced?
Only in the Lok Sabha, and only on the President's recommendation. The Rajya Sabha may recommend changes but cannot amend or reject it.
What is the RBI repo rate?
The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends short-term funds to banks against eligible securities. Raising it generally makes borrowing more expensive.
What is the key difference between GDP and GNP?
GDP measures production within a country's territory. GNP adjusts GDP for net factor income earned by residents from abroad.
What happens to purchasing power when prices rise faster than income?
Purchasing power falls: the same income buys fewer goods and services. This is the practical effect of inflation outpacing income growth.
Which longitude is the basis of Indian Standard Time?
82°30′ east longitude, commonly written 82.5°E. IST is UTC+5:30.
Which Indian soil type is especially associated with cotton cultivation?
Black soil, also called regur soil. Its clay-rich composition retains moisture well.
Which coal rank has high moisture and relatively low carbon content?
Lignite, often called brown coal. Coal rank generally progresses from lignite to sub-bituminous, bituminous, and anthracite as carbon content increases.
All analysts are graduates, and no graduate is illiterate. What follows about analysts?
No analyst is illiterate. Every analyst belongs to the graduate group, which is entirely outside the illiterate group.
If all A are B, may you conclude that all B are A?
No. That reverses the statement. All A are B allows B to contain members that are not A.
A candidate is 12th from the left and 9th from the right. How many candidates are in the row?
20. Add both positions and subtract 1 because the same candidate is counted twice: 12 + 9 − 1 = 20.
You face north, turn right, then right again. Which direction are you facing?
South. The first right turn faces east; the second faces south.
If today is Tuesday, what day will it be 45 days later?
Friday. Dividing 45 by 7 leaves a remainder of 3, so move forward three weekdays from Tuesday.
What comes next in the series A, C, F, J, O?
U. The letter-position gaps increase by one: +2, +3, +4, +5, then +6.
A square sheet is folded once in half, and one hole is punched through both layers away from the folded edge. How many holes appear after unfolding?
Two. The punch passes through both layers, producing a mirrored pair when the sheet is opened.
What is the smaller angle between the clock hands at 3:30?
75°. The minute hand is at 180°, while the hour hand is at 105°; the difference is 75°.
Some engineers are managers; all managers are graduates. What conclusion is certain?
Some engineers are graduates. The engineers who are managers must also belong to the graduate group.
Of 30 trainees, 18 study Reasoning, 17 study Numerical Ability, and 5 study neither. How many study both?
10. Twenty-five study at least one subject, so the overlap is 18 + 17 − 25 = 10.
What does “data sufficient” mean in a reasoning problem?
The supplied statement or statements determine one unique answer. You need not solve further once uniqueness is established.
What fraction is equal to 12.5%?
1/8, because 12.5/100 = 0.125 = 1/8.
A value rises 20% and then falls 20%. What is the net change?
A 4% decrease. Starting from 100 gives 120, then 20% off 120 gives 96.
What is the highest common factor of 84 and 126?
42. The common prime factors are 2 × 3 × 7 = 42.
Divide 64 in the ratio 3:5.
24 and 40. There are 8 total parts, so each part is 8; multiply by 3 and 5.
Eight values average 15. Replacing 11 with 19 changes the average to what?
16. The total rises by 8, so the average rises by 8 ÷ 8 = 1.
Solve for x: 3x − 7 = 20.
x = 9. Add 7 to obtain 3x = 27, then divide by 3.
A rectangle has perimeter 54 cm and length 16 cm. What is its width?
11 cm. Since 2(length + width) = 54, length + width = 27 and width = 27 − 16.
A bag contains 5 red, 3 blue, and 2 green balls. What is the probability of drawing a blue ball once?
3/10. There are 3 blue balls among 10 balls in total.
How far does a vehicle travel at 60 km/h for 2.5 hours?
150 km. Distance = speed × time = 60 × 2.5.
What is the median of 4, 7, 9, 11, and 18?
9. With five ordered values, the median is the third value.
Five machines make 600 units in 4 hours. At the same rate, how many do 8 machines make in 5 hours?
1,200 units. Output per machine-hour is 600 ÷ 20 = 30; then 8 × 5 × 30 = 1,200.
Which punctuation mark can join two closely related independent clauses without a conjunction?
A semicolon. Each side must be able to stand as a complete sentence.
Choose the correct verb: “Please ___ the files on the desk.”
Lay. “Lay” takes a direct object—the files—whereas “lie” does not.
Which is correct: “since three years” or “for three years”?
For three years. Use “for” with a duration and “since” with a starting point, such as “since 2023.”
Choose “fewer” or “less”: “___ applicants completed the form this year than last year.”
Fewer. Use “fewer” with countable plural nouns such as applicants; use “less” with uncountable quantities.
Choose the correct word: “The delay may ___ production.”
Affect. “Affect” is usually a verb meaning influence; “effect” is usually a noun meaning result.
Which article completes “___ honest assessment”?
An. Article choice follows sound, and “honest” begins with a vowel sound because the h is silent.
Which is standard: “between you and I” or “between you and me”?
Between you and me. A preposition takes the objective pronoun “me,” not the subject pronoun “I.”
Make this list parallel: “to inspect, recording, and report.”
To inspect, record, and report. Coordinated items should use the same grammatical form.
Fix the modifier: “After reviewing the report, approval was granted by the manager.”
After reviewing the report, the manager granted approval. The person performing the review must follow the introductory phrase.
Choose the standard verb form: “If I ___ responsible, I would review the records again.”
Were. In a hypothetical contrary-to-fact condition, formal standard English uses the subjunctive “were.”
Change to passive voice: “The team completed the audit.”
The audit was completed by the team. The object becomes the subject, with “was completed” preserving the simple past tense.
Frequently Asked Questions
How are these 50 CIL MT flashcards distributed?
The set uses 11 cards each for General Knowledge/Awareness, Reasoning, Numerical Ability, and General English, plus 6 cards for common exam and selection rules. CIL names the four Paper I areas but does not publish their weights, so this is a transparent editorial allocation, not an official blueprint percentage.
What is the official CIL MT CBT-26 exam pattern?
Advertisement No. 03/2026 specifies one three-hour CBT with 100 Paper I questions and 100 discipline-specific Paper II questions. Each paper is worth 100 marks, for 200 questions and 200 marks total.
What does CIL MT Paper I cover?
CIL officially names General Knowledge/Awareness, Reasoning, Numerical Ability, and General English. It does not publish an item count or percentage for each of those four Paper I areas.
Why does this set not teach a single Paper II syllabus?
Paper II tests professional knowledge for the discipline selected in the application. CBT-26 has nine different disciplines, and the FAQ permits one discipline per applicant. The linked OEP practice bank contains 50 Paper I questions and 50 Mechanical Engineering Paper II questions; it does not cover the other eight Paper II disciplines. Candidates in those disciplines should use CIL's official discipline syllabus and matched subject sources rather than treating the Mechanical bank as universal.
What are the CIL MT qualifying marks?
Candidates must meet the minimum separately in both papers: 40 marks per paper for UR/EWS, 35 for OBC-NCL, and 30 for SC/ST/PwD. A high combined total does not repair a score below the applicable floor in either paper.
Did the completed CIL MT CBT under Advertisement No. 03/2026 have negative marking?
No. For that completed recruitment cycle, each correct answer earned one mark, a wrong answer had no penalty, and an unattempted question earned zero. A future recruitment cycle may publish different rules, so applicants should re-check its official advertisement.
Does CIL MT selection include an interview?
No. Advertisement No. 03/2026 says final selection is based on CBT marks only and no interview is held. Clearing both paper floors does not guarantee appointment; merit, vacancies, document verification, and the initial medical examination still matter.
Does CIL publish a CBT-26 pass rate or retake waiting period?
CIL does not publish a candidate pass rate or a fixed day-based retake interval for Advertisement No. 03/2026. Its FAQ says there is no restriction on appearing in a future recruitment examination even after appearing in a past recruitment process.
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