IATA Foundation (DIPL-22) Exam Flashcards

Q: Is DIPL-22 one exam that tests all three GDS platforms?

No. DIPL-22 is an umbrella diploma requiring one elective. Candidates choose Amadeus, Sabre, or Travelport+ and take the examination associated with that course. These cards cover shared concepts and do not teach interchangeable GDS commands.

Q: What is the exam format for an IATA Foundation elective?

IATA publishes an online remotely supervised, closed-course-book exam with 80 multiple-choice questions, a two-hour allowance, and a 60% passing grade.

Q: How many exam attempts does IATA allow?

Each current Foundation elective page lists two exam attempts within 12 months from the date of purchase. IATA does not publish a fixed wait measured in days between those attempts.

Q: Does IATA publish a topic weighting for the Foundation exam?

No. IATA publishes eight key topics but no percentage or item allocation for them. The eight topic groups in this set are an even study aid, not an official exam blueprint.

Q: Can these cards replace the Electronic Booking Tool for my chosen GDS?

No. The cards review common reservation concepts only. Candidates must use the selected Amadeus, Sabre, or Travelport+ course and its Electronic Booking Tool for exact entries, screens, and workflows.

Question 1

What is the travel professional's first task when a customer makes an enquiry?

Accepted Answer

Qualify the request: identify who is traveling, purpose, dates, destination, budget, preferences, and any accessibility or documentation needs before proposing products.

Question 2

What is the difference between a travel supplier and a travel intermediary?

Accepted Answer

A supplier delivers the product, such as an airline, hotel, railway, or cruise line. An intermediary, such as a travel agency, advises the customer and arranges products supplied by others.

Question 3

Why must a travel professional identify the source of a rule or requirement?

Accepted Answer

Rules can come from governments, carriers, suppliers, or the agency and may change. Identifying the responsible source prevents an agency preference from being presented as a legal or supplier requirement.

Question 4

What does an itinerary do?

Accepted Answer

It organizes the traveler's booked journey in sequence, including dates, local times, locations, transport, accommodation, and relevant service details. It is a trip plan, not proof that every service has been paid or ticketed.

Question 5

What is the principle of data minimization in travel servicing?

Accepted Answer

Collect, use, and share only the personal information needed for the reservation or required process. Protect passport, payment, contact, and preference data from unnecessary disclosure.

Question 6

Why should a consultant document advice and customer decisions?

Accepted Answer

A written record preserves the options, conditions, deadlines, and instructions communicated, helping colleagues service the file consistently and reducing later disputes.

Question 7

What does a three-character IATA location code identify?

Accepted Answer

It identifies a commercial air-transport location such as an airport or metropolitan area. Always confirm whether a code represents one airport or a city grouping before building the itinerary.

Question 8

What does an IATA airline designator identify?

Accepted Answer

The two-character designator identifies an airline in commercial schedules, reservations, and ticketing. It is different from the three-letter airline designator used in ICAO operational contexts.

Question 9

Why must a city code be distinguished from an airport code?

Accepted Answer

A city code can group multiple airports. Selecting the city without checking the specific airport can create an unintended transfer, extra ground travel, or an impossible connection.

Question 10

What is an open-jaw itinerary?

Accepted Answer

An itinerary in which the passenger returns from a different point than the arrival point, or returns to a different point than the original departure city, with the gap traveled separately.

Question 11

Why are flight departure and arrival times read as local times?

Accepted Answer

Schedules normally show the local clock time at each airport. Time-zone differences and date changes must be considered before calculating elapsed travel time or a connection.

Question 12

What effect can crossing the International Date Line have on an itinerary?

Accepted Answer

The calendar date can advance or move back independently of the flight's elapsed duration. Check the displayed arrival date rather than inferring it from clock time alone.

Question 13

What is minimum connecting time (MCT)?

Accepted Answer

MCT is the shortest officially permitted interval for a specified connection under the applicable airport, carrier, terminal, and itinerary conditions. It is not one universal number for an airport.

Question 14

What is the difference between a passport and a visa?

Accepted Answer

A passport is an identity and nationality document issued by the traveler's government. A visa is permission from a destination or transit authority under stated conditions; it does not replace a valid passport.

Question 15

Why should entry and transit requirements be checked for the traveler's exact itinerary?

Accepted Answer

Requirements can depend on nationality, passport type and validity, destination, transit points, length and purpose of stay, and other traveler circumstances. A rule for one traveler cannot safely be copied to another.

Question 16

Why is a transit point relevant even when the traveler does not leave the airport?

Accepted Answer

A transit authority may require documents based on nationality, routing, terminal change, baggage collection, or length of connection. Airside transit does not automatically remove all entry or transit requirements.

Question 17

What should a travel insurance discussion distinguish?

Accepted Answer

It should distinguish covered events, exclusions, limits, deductibles, eligibility, and the claims process. A policy name alone does not prove that a specific cancellation, medical event, or activity is covered.

Question 18

Why must the passenger name in a booking be checked carefully?

Accepted Answer

The booking and travel documents must follow the carrier's rules and align with the traveler's identity document. A name discrepancy can disrupt check-in or require a restricted and potentially costly correction.

Question 19

What is the safe way to handle a passenger's special service need?

Accepted Answer

Record the need accurately, send the appropriate request through the selected booking process, and verify the supplier's response. A request is not guaranteed merely because it was entered.

Question 20

What is the difference between a nonstop flight and a direct flight?

Accepted Answer

A nonstop flight travels between two points without an intermediate stop. A direct flight keeps one flight number but may stop en route, so 'direct' does not necessarily mean nonstop.

Question 21

What is a codeshare flight?

Accepted Answer

It is a flight sold under one airline's designator and flight number but operated by another airline. The operating carrier matters for check-in, onboard service, baggage, and operational notices.

Question 22

What does interline travel allow?

Accepted Answer

An interline arrangement can let participating airlines cooperate on an itinerary, ticket, or baggage handling. The exact services depend on the carriers' agreements and must be verified for the routing.

Question 23

Why is cabin class not the same as booking class?

Accepted Answer

Cabin class describes the onboard service cabin, while booking class is an inventory code within a cabin that can carry different fare conditions, availability, and mileage treatment.

Question 24

Why must baggage allowance be verified for the priced itinerary?

Accepted Answer

Allowance can vary by fare, route, carrier, status, and operating arrangement. A general cabin label or past trip does not establish the allowance for a new ticket.

Question 25

What should be compared when presenting two flight options?

Accepted Answer

Compare total price and conditions as well as airports, operating carriers, stops, connection risk, schedule, baggage, change and refund rules, and included services.

Question 26

What does a hotel meal plan describe?

Accepted Answer

It identifies which meals are included in the room rate, such as room only or bed and breakfast. The exact inclusions and serving conditions must be confirmed with the property or rate details.

Question 27

Why are a hotel guarantee policy and cancellation policy separate?

Accepted Answer

The guarantee explains how the room is held, often with payment details. The cancellation policy states the deadline and charge for canceling or failing to arrive; guaranteeing a room does not make it freely cancelable.

Question 28

What is a one-way car rental?

Accepted Answer

The vehicle is collected at one location and returned at another. Availability, geographic restrictions, and a one-way charge may apply and must be checked before confirmation.

Question 29

When should a rail pass be compared with point-to-point tickets?

Accepted Answer

Compare them for the traveler's actual dates and routes, including reservation requirements, train restrictions, flexibility, and total cost. A pass is not automatically the cheapest option.

Question 30

Why does cruise cabin location matter?

Accepted Answer

Deck, position, nearby facilities, accessibility, view, and motion sensitivity can affect suitability. The same broad cabin category may contain materially different locations or features.

Question 31

What must be identified before quoting a pre-packaged tour?

Accepted Answer

Identify the included and excluded transport, accommodation, meals, visits, transfers, guide services, taxes or fees, minimum participation rules, and change or cancellation conditions.

Question 32

Why are open-ended questions useful in a travel consultation?

Accepted Answer

They encourage the customer to explain goals, priorities, and constraints instead of merely confirming the consultant's assumptions, producing a more suitable recommendation.

Question 33

What is the difference between a product feature and a customer benefit?

Accepted Answer

A feature is an objective attribute, such as a nonstop schedule. A benefit explains how that attribute meets the customer's need, such as reducing travel time and connection risk.

Question 34

What makes a travel quotation complete?

Accepted Answer

It states the priced services, currency, total, inclusions, exclusions, availability status, fare or supplier conditions, payment and ticketing deadlines, and how long the quote can be relied upon.

Question 35

What is the first useful response to a service complaint?

Accepted Answer

Listen without interruption, acknowledge the impact, clarify the facts and desired outcome, then explain the action you can take and when the customer will receive an update.

Question 36

How does a travel professional avoid assumptions in cross-cultural service?

Accepted Answer

Use clear, respectful language; ask rather than infer preferences; confirm understanding; and adapt communication without stereotyping the traveler.

Question 37

Why is after-sales follow-up part of customer loyalty?

Accepted Answer

Following up confirms that unresolved service issues are handled, captures useful feedback, and shows that the relationship continues after payment or departure.

Question 38

What is a fare rule?

Accepted Answer

It is the set of conditions governing use of a fare, such as eligibility, dates, routing, minimum or maximum stay, advance purchase, changes, refunds, and combinations.

Question 39

What does a booking class tell a travel professional?

Accepted Answer

It identifies a specific reservation inventory bucket. It helps connect availability to a fare but does not, by itself, reveal every fare rule or onboard service.

Question 40

Why must a low fare be checked for conditions before it is recommended?

Accepted Answer

The fare may have restrictive change, refund, routing, baggage, or purchase rules. Suitability depends on the traveler's needs and risk tolerance, not price alone.

Question 41

What is the difference between an e-ticket and an itinerary receipt?

Accepted Answer

The e-ticket is the carrier's electronic record of ticketed travel. The itinerary receipt communicates details to the passenger, but the document itself is not the electronic ticket record.

Question 42

What is a flight coupon in an airline ticket?

Accepted Answer

It is the ticket component associated with a particular flight segment. Coupon status and sequence matter when travel is changed, refunded, or used out of order.

Question 43

What is the difference between a ticket reissue and a refund?

Accepted Answer

A reissue applies the value of an existing ticket to changed travel under the fare rules. A refund returns eligible value through the permitted process instead of issuing replacement travel.

Question 44

Why should taxes, fees, and surcharges be shown in the total quote?

Accepted Answer

The customer needs the payable total and a clear explanation of what is included. Quoting only a base fare can make options look misleadingly inexpensive.

Question 45

What is the purpose of a Passenger Name Record (PNR)?

Accepted Answer

A PNR stores the reservation and servicing information needed to manage a travel file, such as traveler identification, itinerary, contacts, service information, and ticketing arrangements.

Question 46

Why is displayed availability not the same as a confirmed reservation?

Accepted Answer

Availability is an inventory display at a point in time. A segment becomes usable only after it is booked and returns the appropriate confirmation status in the selected system.

Question 47

What is a ticketing time limit?

Accepted Answer

It is the deadline by which a reservation must be ticketed under the booking and fare conditions. If it is missed, the reservation or quoted fare may be canceled or lost.

Question 48

What is the purpose of a GDS queue?

Accepted Answer

A queue organizes reservation files requiring action, such as schedule changes, ticketing deadlines, messages, or follow-up. It supports timely servicing but still requires a user to review and act.

Question 49

Why should a GDS reservation be reviewed before ending the transaction?

Accepted Answer

Review catches incorrect names, dates, airports, statuses, contacts, deadlines, and service details before the file is finalized and passed into later ticketing or servicing work.

Question 50

Can an Amadeus entry be assumed to work in Sabre or Travelport+?

Accepted Answer

No. The business workflow may be similar, but commands, formats, screens, and responses are platform-specific. Practice exact syntax only in the IATA course and Electronic Booking Tool for the chosen elective.

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