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Sample YDUS Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the YDUS exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 54-year-old patient with decompensated cirrhosis and portal hypertension presents with active hematemesis. Urgent upper endoscopy demonstrates actively bleeding esophageal varices. Alongside hemodynamic stabilization and endoscopic band ligation, which vasoactive pharmacotherapy is the first-line choice to reduce portal venous pressure and collateral blood flow?

A.Terlipressin infusion (or octreotide bolus followed by continuous infusion)

B.Oral non-selective beta-blocker therapy with propranolol titrated to target heart rate

C.High-dose intravenous proton pump inhibitor monotherapy with pantoprazole

D.Continuous intravenous vasopressin infusion without concurrent nitroglycerin

Explanation: In acute variceal hemorrhage, vasoactive medications such as terlipressin, somatostatin, or octreotide are first-line treatments started immediately upon presentation. They induce splanchnic vasoconstriction, reducing portal inflow and variceal pressure. Combined with endoscopic variceal ligation, they improve 5-day hemostasis and survival.

2A 42-year-old woman is evaluated for persistent fatigue and elevated aminotransferases (ALT 380 U/L, AST 310 U/L). Viral hepatitis serologies (HBsAg, anti-HCV) are negative. Serum protein electrophoresis reveals marked polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia (IgG 2,450 mg/dL). Autoantibody testing confirms high-titer antinuclear antibodies (ANA >= 1:320) and anti-smooth muscle antibodies (anti-SMA) with F-actin specificity. Which diagnosis is most likely?

A.Primary biliary cholangitis

B.Type 1 autoimmune hepatitis

C.Primary sclerosing cholangitis

D.Metabolic dysfunction-associated steatohepatitis (MASH)

Explanation: Type 1 autoimmune hepatitis (AIH) classically presents in young to middle-aged females with prominent transaminitis, marked polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia (predominantly IgG), and positivity for ANA and anti-SMA (specifically targeting F-actin). Liver biopsy typically shows interface hepatitis with plasma cell infiltrates.

3In the clinical, endoscopic, and histopathologic differentiation of inflammatory bowel disease, which feature is strongly characteristic of ulcerative colitis rather than Crohn's disease?

A.Transmural inflammation and non-caseating granulomas in resected bowel

B.Continuous mucosal and submucosal inflammation starting from the rectum and progressing proximally without skip areas

C.Cobblestone appearance with deep longitudinal fissures and aphthous ulcers separated by normal mucosa

D.High incidence of perianal fistulas, intra-abdominal abscesses, and fibrostenotic strictures

Explanation: The typical untreated ulcerative colitis pattern is continuous inflammation beginning in the rectum and extending proximally, predominantly involving the mucosa. Crohn's disease more often has skip lesions and transmural complications. Rectal sparing or patchiness can occur in ulcerative colitis, particularly after treatment, so this pattern is characteristic rather than universal.

4A diagnostic paracentesis is performed on a 58-year-old patient presenting with new-onset abdominal distension. Simultaneous laboratory measurements show a serum albumin of 3.4 g/dL and an ascitic fluid albumin of 1.6 g/dL. What is the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG), and which pathophysiologic etiology does it indicate?

A.SAAG is 1.8 g/dL, indicating portal hypertension

B.SAAG is 0.47 g/dL, indicating peritoneal carcinomatosis

C.SAAG is 1.8 g/dL, indicating nephrotic syndrome

D.SAAG is 0.8 g/dL, indicating tuberculous peritonitis

Explanation: The serum-ascites albumin gradient is serum albumin minus ascitic albumin: 3.4 - 1.6 = 1.8 g/dL. A SAAG >= 1.1 g/dL supports portal hypertension as the mechanism of ascites. Clinical evaluation is still needed to distinguish causes such as cirrhosis, cardiac disease, and hepatic venous outflow obstruction.

5A 52-year-old cirrhotic patient with ascites presents from home with worsening encephalopathy, fever, and mild diffuse abdominal tenderness. There has been no recent hospitalization, antibiotic use, or known resistant-organism colonization, and local susceptibility data support third-generation cephalosporins. Ascitic fluid has 380 polymorphonuclear neutrophils/mm³, without evidence of a surgically treatable source. Which immediate antimicrobial approach is appropriate?

A.Withhold antimicrobial therapy until bacterial cultures identify the causative organism

B.Initiate intravenous empiric third-generation cephalosporin therapy (such as cefotaxime) immediately

C.Perform emergent exploratory laparotomy for suspected acute peritonitis

D.Prescribe oral metronidazole monotherapy for 14 days

Explanation: An ascitic fluid absolute PMN neutrophil count >= 250/mm³ establishes the presumptive diagnosis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP). Because delay in treatment substantially increases mortality, empiric intravenous antibiotic therapy with a third-generation cephalosporin (e.g., cefotaxime or ceftriaxone) must be initiated immediately without awaiting culture results.

6A 24-year-old male develops tea-colored urine, facial puffiness, and new hypertension 14 days after an untreated exudative pharyngitis. Urinalysis reveals dysmorphic red blood cells and red blood cell casts. Serum complement C3 is profoundly depressed, while C4 remains within normal limits. Which glomerulonephritis is most consistent with this latency period and isolated alternative-pathway complement consumption?

A.Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

B.IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

C.Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

D.Anti-glomerular basement membrane (Goodpasture) disease

Explanation: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) typically develops 1 to 3 weeks after streptococcal pharyngitis (or 3 to 6 weeks after impetigo). It features an acute nephritic syndrome with low serum C3 (via alternative pathway activation) and normal C4; C3 levels characteristically normalize within 6 to 8 weeks.

7An elderly patient with acute gastroenteritis and dehydration presents with oliguria, without preceding CKD or diuretic use. Serum creatinine has increased from 0.9 to 2.7 mg/dL. Urine sodium is 14 mEq/L, urine creatinine 120 mg/dL, and serum sodium 140 mEq/L. What is the fractional excretion of sodium (FeNa), and which diagnosis does it support in this context?

A.FeNa is approximately 0.23%, indicating prerenal acute kidney injury

B.FeNa is approximately 2.45%, indicating acute tubular necrosis

C.FeNa is approximately 4.80%, indicating postrenal urinary tract obstruction

D.FeNa is approximately 1.55%, indicating acute interstitial nephritis

Explanation: FeNa = (urine Na × serum creatinine)/(serum Na × urine creatinine) × 100 = (14 × 2.7)/(140 × 120) × 100 = 0.225%, approximately 0.23%. This shows avid sodium retention and supports prerenal AKI in this volume-depleted patient. FeNa is an adjunct to clinical assessment and does not independently exclude intrinsic kidney disease or obstruction.

8A patient with oliguric acute kidney injury has a serum potassium of 7.4 mEq/L. The 12-lead electrocardiogram demonstrates tall peaked T waves, flattened P waves, and PR prolongation approaching a sine-wave pattern. Which pharmacological intervention must be administered first?

A.Intravenous calcium gluconate (or calcium chloride)

B.Intravenous regular insulin combined with 50% dextrose

C.Nebulized high-dose albuterol (salbutamol)

D.Oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate alone

Explanation: Intravenous calcium gluconate or calcium chloride immediately antagonizes the membrane-depolarizing cardiotoxic effects of severe hyperkalemia by raising the threshold potential of cardiac myocytes, restoring normal membrane excitability within 1 to 3 minutes without altering serum potassium concentration.

9A 56-year-old patient with Stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) on maintenance hemodialysis is evaluated for secondary hyperparathyroidism. Laboratory testing demonstrates hyperphosphatemia (phosphate 6.8 mg/dL), hypocalcemia (corrected calcium 8.1 mg/dL), and an intact parathyroid hormone (iPTH) level of 720 pg/mL. What is the primary initial pathophysiology driving this hormonal disorder?

A.Autonomous parathyroid adenoma formation with loss of calcium-sensing receptor responsiveness

B.Impaired renal 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity leading to calcitriol (1,25-OH2D3) deficiency combined with phosphate retention

C.Primary gastrointestinal hyperabsorption of calcium stimulating parathyroid chief cell proliferation

D.Target tissue resistance to circulating calcitonin in osteoclasts and renal distal tubules

Explanation: In CKD-mineral and bone disorder (CKD-MBD), loss of functional renal parenchyma leads to reduced 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity and deficient production of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol), reducing gut calcium absorption. Simultaneously, decreased phosphate filtration causes hyperphosphatemia, which complexes serum calcium and stimulates FGF-23 and PTH synthesis, causing parathyroid hyperplasia.

10A 36-year-old woman presents with severe fatigue, unintentional weight loss, salt craving, postural lightheadedness, and diffuse hyperpigmentation of the palmar creases and oral mucosa. Morning plasma cortisol is low at 3.1 mcg/dL with an elevated ACTH of 180 pg/mL. Which diagnostic procedure is the standard confirmatory test to assess adrenocortical functional reserve?

A.High-dose overnight 8-mg dexamethasone suppression test

B.Synthetic ACTH (cosyntropin 250 mcg) stimulation test

C.24-hour urinary free cortisol excretion measurement

D.Water deprivation test followed by desmopressin administration

Explanation: The standard-dose 250-mcg cosyntropin test assesses adrenal cortisol reserve using baseline and stimulated cortisol measurements. Interpretation uses the laboratory's assay-specific cutoff: the historical 18 mcg/dL threshold is too high for some newer assays. In this patient, low cortisol together with elevated ACTH and hyperpigmentation points to primary adrenal insufficiency.

About the YDUS Exam

Independent English-language MCQ study adaptation for medical specialists preparing for Tıpta Yan Dal Uzmanlık Eğitimi Giriş Sınavı (YDUS). This 100-item bank samples selected topics from eleven primary specialties; it does not cover every listed paper or reproduce official topic proportions. Use the category for your primary specialty. It is not an official translation, a simulation of the Turkish examination, or a substitute for open-ended writing, clinical, or performance practice.

Exam sponsor: Ölçme, Seçme ve Yerleştirme Merkezi (ÖSYM). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Single-session paper test in Ankara, with separate primary-specialty papers rather than one omnibus paper. MCQ raw scoring subtracts one quarter of the wrong-answer count from the correct-answer count, then converts the result to a score out of 100; written papers also yield scores out of 100. No mandatory oral, practical, case-study, or assignment component is specified for this entrance examination. Psychiatry places have a special restriction to military applicants whose identities are reported by the designated ministries.

Time Limit

80 minutes for 60-MCQ branches; 60 minutes for open-ended branches

Passing Score

45 points minimum threshold for placement consideration; admission determined by branch ranking and quotas

Exam / Certification Fees

TRY 4,300 standard fee (late registration is 50% higher at TRY 6,450)

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

ÖSYM 2026 YDUS Başvuru Kılavuzu · Source checked 2026-10-21
ÖSYM 2026 YDUS İç Hastalıkları Soru Kitapçığı · Source checked 2026-10-21Confirms official Turkish-language paper and 60-item branch format; practice items are independent English study adaptations.
TUK Ministry of Health specialty curricula · Source checked 2026-10-21Primary-specialty scope; the guide does not publish a common percentage blueprint across the separate papers.
TUK Internal Medicine core curriculum v2.4.3 · Source checked 2026-10-21
TUK Pediatrics core curriculum v2.4 · Source checked 2026-10-21
TUK General Surgery core curriculum v2.4.2 · Source checked 2026-10-21
2024 international adult hyperglycemic-crisis consensus · Source checked 2026-10-21Clinical study reference for DKA potassium management, not an ÖSYM endorsement.
AAP neonatal hyperbilirubinemia guidance FAQ · Source checked 2026-10-21
2026 pediatric Surviving Sepsis Campaign guideline · Source checked 2026-10-21
ESHRE endometriosis guideline · Source checked 2026-10-21
ACR Manual on Contrast Media · Source checked 2026-10-21

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

25 practice items; not an official weighting

İç Hastalıkları (Internal Medicine)

Gastroenterology, nephrology, endocrinology, hematology, medical oncology, rheumatology, and clinical immunology.

20 practice items; not an official weighting

Çocuk Sağlığı ve Hastalıkları (Pediatrics)

Neonatology, pediatric cardiology, pulmonology, nephrology, endocrinology, metabolic disorders, and hematology-oncology.

15 practice items; not an official weighting

Genel Cerrahi (General Surgery)

Surgical oncology, GI and HPB surgery, endocrine surgery, and surgical critical care.

12 practice items; not an official weighting

Kadın Hastalıkları ve Doğum (Obstetrics & Gynecology)

Maternal-fetal medicine (perinatology), gynecologic oncology, and reproductive endocrinology.

10 practice items; not an official weighting

Anesteziyoloji ve Reanimasyon (Anesthesiology)

Intensive care medicine, algology (pain medicine), and hemodynamic management.

8 practice items; not an official weighting

Acil Tıp (Emergency Medicine)

Critical resuscitation, toxicology, and acute stabilization.

2 practice items per specialty; not an official weighting

Clinical Specialty Curricula (Pulmonology, Neurology, PMR, Orthopedics, Radiology)

Selected interpretation and clinical-decision topics for pulmonology, neurology, PMR, orthopedics, and radiology. These ten MCQs do not simulate the written responses required by these five official papers.

Preparing for the YDUS Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 45 points minimum threshold for placement consideration; admission determined by branch ranking and quotas
Assessment: Single-session paper test in Ankara, with separate primary-specialty papers rather than one omnibus paper. MCQ raw scoring subtracts one quarter of the wrong-answer count from the correct-answer count, then converts the result to a score out of 100; written papers also yield scores out of 100. No mandatory oral, practical, case-study, or assignment component is specified for this entrance examination. Psychiatry places have a special restriction to military applicants whose identities are reported by the designated ministries.
Time limit: 80 minutes for 60-MCQ branches; 60 minutes for open-ended branches
Exam / certification fees: TRY 4,300 standard fee (late registration is 50% higher at TRY 6,450) Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

Work through all 100 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

YDUS: Suggested Study Strategy

1Focus heavily on the TUK (Tıpta Uzmanlık Kurulu) core curriculum and reference textbooks of your primary specialty (e.g., Harrison's for Internal Medicine, Nelson for Pediatrics, Schwartz/Sabiston for General Surgery).

2The six MCQ papers subtract one quarter of the wrong-answer count before conversion to 100 points. Review the official five-option papers and practise timing for your own specialty; this four-option bank is not a scoring simulation.

3Review current international clinical practice guidelines (KDIGO, ADA, ESC, ASCO, Surviving Sepsis Campaign) alongside standard Turkish healthcare protocols.

4Pay special attention to diagnostic decision algorithms, staging classifications, and high-yield clinical calculations.

Frequently Asked Questions

Do all candidates answer the same omnibus test paper in YDUS?

No. Section 1.3 of the official ÖSYM guide specifies that each candidate takes only the examination paper corresponding to their registered primary medical specialty (ana dal). Candidates do not answer an omnibus paper covering every specialty.

What is the minimum score required to be eligible for fellowship placement in YDUS?

Section 4.5 of the ÖSYM guide sets 45 out of 100 as the minimum placement score threshold. Candidates scoring below 45 cannot submit fellowship preferences, and placement among eligible candidates is determined by score ranking and available institutional quotas.

How are wrong answers scored on the multiple-choice YDUS papers?

For the six primary specialty branches using multiple-choice questions, raw scoring deducts one-fourth (0.25) of a point for each incorrect answer, meaning four wrong answers cancel out one correct answer.

Is this practice bank an official translation of the ÖSYM YDUS exam?

No. This is an independent English-language MCQ study adaptation. The published official 2026 papers are in Turkish; no English delivery option has been confirmed. Our four-option MCQs do not reproduce the official language environment, five-option MCQ papers, or open-ended written responses, and do not replace writing or clinical/performance practice.