Free Practice Questions for TUS

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Sample TUS Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the TUS exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 40+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1After a medial epicondyle injury, a patient has weak finger abduction and reduced sensation over the little finger. Which nerve is most likely affected?

A.Median

B.Ulnar

C.Radial

D.Musculocutaneous

Explanation: The ulnar nerve passes behind the medial epicondyle and supplies the interossei used in finger abduction. Its sensory territory includes the little finger.

2A wrist lesion causes thenar weakness and numbness of the palmar index and middle fingers, while sensation over the thenar eminence is preserved. Which location best fits?

A.Ulnar nerve at Guyon's canal

B.Radial nerve in the spiral groove

C.Lower trunk of the brachial plexus

D.Median nerve within the carpal tunnel

Explanation: Median compression within the carpal tunnel affects digital sensation and thenar motor branches. The palmar cutaneous branch arises proximal to the tunnel, helping explain preserved thenar-eminence skin sensation.

3A right spinal cord hemisection causes loss of vibration and joint-position sensation below the lesion on which side?

A.Right, because dorsal-column fibers have not yet crossed

B.Left, because dorsal columns cross at each segment

C.Both equally, because the dorsal columns are unpaired

D.Neither, because these modalities travel only in spinothalamic tracts

Explanation: Dorsal-column fibers ascend ipsilaterally in the spinal cord and cross in the medulla. A right cord lesion therefore affects these modalities on the right below the lesion.

4A developmental defect affects the epithelial primordium of the thymus. Which pharyngeal pouch normally contributes this primordium?

A.First

B.Second

C.Third

D.Fourth

Explanation: The thymic epithelial primordium develops from the third pharyngeal pouch. Its migration is related developmentally to the inferior parathyroid primordia.

5An arterial sample has pH 7.28, bicarbonate 14 mmol/L, and low PaCO2. Which primary disturbance best fits?

A.Metabolic alkalosis

B.Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

C.Primary respiratory acidosis

D.Primary respiratory alkalosis alone

Explanation: Acidemia with reduced bicarbonate indicates a primary metabolic acidosis. Reduced PaCO2 is in the compensatory direction, though its adequacy requires a quantitative assessment.

6For metabolic acidosis, use expected PaCO2 = 1.5 × bicarbonate + 8 ± 2. A patient has bicarbonate 12 mmol/L and measured PaCO2 40 mmHg. Which interpretation follows?

A.Appropriate respiratory compensation

B.Additional respiratory alkalosis

C.Primary metabolic alkalosis

D.Additional respiratory acidosis

Explanation: Expected PaCO2 is 1.5 × 12 + 8 = 26 mmHg, with a range of 24–28. A measured value of 40 is higher than expected, indicating an additional respiratory acidosis.

7A child has hyperammonemia due to a urea-cycle disorder. Which organ normally performs the principal complete urea-cycle conversion of nitrogen to urea?

A.Liver

B.Kidney

C.Small intestine

D.Skeletal muscle

Explanation: The liver performs the principal complete urea cycle, incorporating waste nitrogen into urea. Failure of this pathway can produce dangerous ammonia accumulation.

8Oxidant exposure triggers hemolysis in a patient with G6PD deficiency. Which impaired protective process is most relevant in red cells?

A.Mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation

B.Urea synthesis

C.NADPH-dependent maintenance of reduced glutathione

D.Ketone-body synthesis

Explanation: G6PD supports NADPH production through the pentose phosphate pathway. NADPH helps maintain reduced glutathione and protects erythrocytes against oxidative injury.

9An enzyme follows v = Vmax[S]/(Km + [S]). With Vmax 120 units and [S] = 2Km, what is the predicted rate?

A.40 units

B.80 units

C.60 units

D.120 units

Explanation: Substitution gives v = 120 × 2Km/(3Km) = 80 units. At twice Km, the rate is two thirds of Vmax rather than the maximum.

10Macrocytosis, loss of vibration sense, and elevated methylmalonic acid occur together. Which deficiency best fits?

A.Iron

B.Vitamin C

C.Vitamin K

D.Vitamin B12

Explanation: Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause megaloblastic changes and neurologic dysfunction, with elevated methylmalonic acid. Folate deficiency can also cause megaloblastosis but does not produce the same methylmalonic-acid pattern.

About the TUS Exam

Independent practice for TUS basic and clinical medical topics. This English-language four-option MCQ study adaptation is not an official translation or Turkish examination simulation and does not substitute for clinical training or performance assessment.

Exam sponsor: ÖSYM. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Two paper MCQ tests, each 135 minutes. No mandatory oral, practical, assignment, or separately assessed case-study component is specified for the entrance tests. Residency training has separate clinical and performance requirements.

Time Limit

135 minutes each for TTBT and KTBT

Passing Score

45 weighted points for preferences; not a guaranteed residency place

Exam / Certification Fees

TRY 2,500 per test; TRY 5,000 for both; late applications cost 50% more

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

ÖSYM 2026 TUS second-period guide, eligibility and Table 1B · Source checked 2026-10-21
ÖSYM published 2026 TUS second-period test materials · Source checked 2026-10-21Confirms Turkish five-choice assessment materials; our questions are independent.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

20 of 40 study questions

Basic medical sciences

Anatomy 3; histology/embryology 1; physiology 2; biochemistry 4; microbiology 4; pathology 3; pharmacology 3. Rounding reflects the small inventory.

20 of 40 study questions

Clinical medical sciences

Internal medicine group 7; pediatrics 5; surgery group 6; obstetrics/gynecology 2, matching the official broad-group proportions. Includes current clinical guidance.

Preparing for the TUS Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 45 weighted points for preferences; not a guaranteed residency place
Assessment: Two paper MCQ tests, each 135 minutes. No mandatory oral, practical, assignment, or separately assessed case-study component is specified for the entrance tests. Residency training has separate clinical and performance requirements.
Time limit: 135 minutes each for TTBT and KTBT
Exam / certification fees: TRY 2,500 per test; TRY 5,000 for both; late applications cost 50% more Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

Work through all 40 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

TUS: Suggested Study Strategy

1Use the current ÖSYM guide and quota tables for your eligibility route.

2Review all basic and clinical fields beyond this small sample.

3Check the date and jurisdiction of clinical guidance; these questions teach concepts rather than Turkish treatment protocols.

4Practise Turkish clinical terminology and obtain appropriate supervised clinical experience separately.

Frequently Asked Questions

Is TUS only a clinical-science paper?

No. The 2026 format has 100 basic-science and 100 clinical-science questions in separate tests.

Does examination eligibility imply eligibility for every residency?

No. Placement and appointment depend on qualification, professional registration, language result, quota type, nationality route, and the program's conditions.