PracticeVideosBlogFlashcardsEspañol
All Practice Exams

Free Practice Questions for Sweden Medical Knowledge Test (Kunskapsprov för läkare)

Exam-style questions and explanations by OpenExamPrep.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card
100+ Questions
100% Free

Loading practice questions...

Same family resources

Explore More Sweden Healthcare Professional Licensing Examinations (Kunskapsprov)

Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.

Sweden Audiologist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för audionomer)

Practice Questions100 questions

Sweden Biomedical Laboratory Scientist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för biomedicinska analytiker)

Practice Questions100 questions

Sweden Dental Hygienist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för tandhygienister)

Practice Questions100 questions

Sweden Dentist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för tandläkare)

Practice Questions100 questions

Sweden Dietitian Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för dietister)

Practice Questions100 questions

Sweden Dispensing Pharmacist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för receptarier)

Practice Questions100 questions
Exam Review

Key Facts: Sweden Medical Knowledge Test (Kunskapsprov för läkare) Exam

7.5 hours

Total length of the theoretical test parts on one day

Umeå universitet

140 MCQs

Questions in the MCQ140 part, alongside clinical cases and a scientific article part

Umeå universitet

2 days

Length of the practical OSCE

Umeå universitet

5 / 3

Maximum attempts: five for the theoretical test, three for the practical test

Socialstyrelsen

SEK 990

Socialstyrelsen application fee for review of the foreign education (step 1)

Socialstyrelsen

Kunskapsprov för läkare is run by Umeå universitet for Socialstyrelsen: a one-day digital theoretical test (clinical cases, a 140-question MCQ part and a scientific article, 7.5 hours in total) and a two-day OSCE. Candidates have up to five theoretical and three practical attempts within five years of the first sitting. The test is in Swedish; this 100-question bank is an English-language MCQ study adaptation — not an official translation, format simulation, or substitute for writing/speaking/performance practice.

Sample Sweden Medical Knowledge Test (Kunskapsprov för läkare) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Sweden Medical Knowledge Test (Kunskapsprov för läkare) exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 54-year-old previously healthy man presents to his primary care health center (vårdcentral) with a 4-day history of productive cough with purulent sputum, fever up to 38.8°C, and left-sided pleuritic chest pain. Vital signs: blood pressure 125/80 mmHg, pulse 82 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, SpO2 96% on ambient air, temperature 38.6°C. Lung auscultation reveals localized crackles and bronchial breath sounds over the left lower lobe. A point-of-care C-reactive protein (CRP) is 85 mg/L. His CRB-65 score is 0. According to Swedish national guidelines (Läkemedelsverket / Strama), which is the recommended first-line antimicrobial therapy?
A.Phenoxymethylpenicillin (PcV / Kåvepenin) 1 g three times daily orally for 7 days
B.Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid 875/125 mg twice daily orally for 7 days
C.Doxycycline 100 mg once daily orally for 7 days
D.Ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily orally for 7 days
Explanation: According to Swedish Strama and Läkemedelsverket guidelines for community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V / Kåvepenin) 1 g three times daily for 7 days is the undisputed first-line treatment for outpatient CAP with a CRB-65 score of 0. Streptococcus pneumoniae remains predominantly sensitive to penicillin V in Sweden due to low resistance rates. Broad-spectrum agents like amoxicillin-clavulanate or fluoroquinolones are reserved for specific clinical indications or treatment failures to preserve antimicrobial stewardship.
2A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension is admitted to the emergency department with acute high fever, shivering, and productive cough. Vital signs: blood pressure 105/65 mmHg, heart rate 104 beats/min, respiratory rate 26 breaths/min, SpO2 91% on room air, temperature 39.2°C. She is alert and oriented. Chest radiography demonstrates a dense right middle lobe infiltrate. Blood tests reveal CRP 190 mg/L and white blood cell count 16.4 x 10^9/L. Her CRB-65 score is 1 (age ≥ 65). She has no known medication allergies. In accordance with Swedish inpatient guidelines (Strama / Svenska Infektionsläkarföreningen), what is the first-line intravenous antibiotic regimen?
A.Cefotaxime 2 g every 8 hours intravenously plus erythromycin 1 g every 6 hours intravenously
B.Intravenous bensylpenicillin (penicillin G) 1–3 g three times daily
C.Piperacillin/tazobactam 4 g every 8 hours intravenously
D.Levofloxacin 500 mg every 12 hours intravenously
Explanation: Swedish guidance for hospitalized community-acquired pneumonia (Svenska Infektionsläkarföreningen, Strama) recommends intravenous bensylpenicillin as first-line therapy for patients without severe disease, because Streptococcus pneumoniae is the leading pathogen and penicillin resistance remains low in Sweden. Broader regimens, such as cefotaxime with a macrolide, are reserved for severe pneumonia or specific risk factors.
3A 27-year-old non-pregnant woman presents to her primary care clinic with a 2-day history of dysuria, urinary frequency, and suprapubic discomfort. She has no fever, flank pain, vaginal discharge, or systemic symptoms. Urinalysis shows 3+ leukocytes and positive nitrites. She has had no prior urinary tract infections in the past year and takes no regular medications. According to Swedish national recommendations (Läkemedelsverket), which medication is a first-line empirical choice for this uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection?
A.Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole 160/800 mg twice daily orally for 3 days
B.Ciprofloxacin 250 mg twice daily orally for 3 days
C.Pivmecillinam (Selexid) 200 mg three times daily orally for 5 days
D.Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily orally for 7 days
Explanation: Läkemedelsverket guidelines designate pivmecillinam (Selexid, 200 mg three times daily for 5 days or 400 mg twice daily for 3 days) and nitrofurantoin (Furadantin, 50 mg three times daily for 5 days) as equal first-line agents for acute uncomplicated cystitis in adult women. Both agents achieve high urinary concentrations with minimal impact on normal intestinal microbiota and exceptionally low rates of resistance. Fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin are contraindicated for uncomplicated lower UTI due to resistance risk and systemic toxicity.
4A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department via ambulance with crushing retrosternal chest pain radiating to his jaw and left arm that began 45 minutes ago. He is diaphoretic and pale. An immediate 12-lead ECG shows 4 mm ST-segment elevations in leads V1 through V4 with reciprocal ST depressions in leads II, III, and aVF. Blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and heart rate is 78 beats/min. The catheterization laboratory is on-site and operational. In addition to loading doses of acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) and ticagrelor with unfractionated heparin, what is the most appropriate definitive management strategy?
A.Emergency coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) as first-line intervention
B.Intravenous thrombolysis with tenecteplase followed by elective angiography in 24 hours
C.Admission to the coronary care unit for serial cardiac troponin measurements before revascularization
D.Immediate primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with goal wire passage within 60-90 minutes
Explanation: This patient has an acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) of the anterior wall. The standard of care in Sweden and according to ESC guidelines is emergent primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), provided it can be performed within 120 minutes of STEMI diagnosis (target contact-to-balloon time < 60-90 minutes). Dual antiplatelet therapy (ASA + a potent P2Y12 inhibitor such as ticagrelor) and parenteral anticoagulation (heparin) are administered immediately. Fibrinolysis is indicated only if anticipated transfer delay to primary PCI exceeds 120 minutes.
5A 67-year-old man with ischemic cardiomyopathy and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF, left ventricular EF 28%) presents for a routine follow-up. He reports persistent dyspnea on mild exertion (NYHA class III) and fatigue despite treatment with enalapril 10 mg twice daily, metoprolol succinate 100 mg once daily, and furosemide 40 mg once daily. Physical examination reveals blood pressure 118/74 mmHg, pulse 66 beats/min, mild bilateral ankle edema, and no jugular venous distension. Serum creatinine is 105 µmol/L (eGFR 64 mL/min/1.73m2) and serum potassium is 4.3 mmol/L. According to national heart failure guidelines, which therapeutic modification is most indicated to reduce cardiovascular mortality?
A.Add an MRA (spironolactone or eplerenone) and an SGLT2 inhibitor
B.Double the furosemide dose to 80 mg once daily and discontinue metoprolol succinate
C.Add digoxin 0.25 mg once daily as first-line mortality-reducing therapy
D.Initiate amiodarone 200 mg once daily for primary prevention of ventricular arrhythmias
Explanation: Modern guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) for HFrEF is built on the 'four pillars': an ACE inhibitor/ARNI, an evidence-based beta-blocker (metoprolol succinate, bisoprolol, or carvedilol), a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA, e.g., spironolactone or eplerenone), and an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin or empagliflozin). With a normal serum potassium (4.3 mmol/L) and preserved eGFR (64 mL/min), adding an MRA and SGLT2 inhibitor provides substantial additive reductions in all-cause mortality and heart failure hospitalizations. Furosemide relieves congestion but does not reduce mortality.
6A 72-year-old woman with a history of essential hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus is found to have an irregular pulse during a routine visit. An ECG confirms newly discovered atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 115 beats/min. She has no chest pain, syncope, or signs of heart failure. Blood pressure is 138/82 mmHg. Transthoracic echocardiography reveals normal left ventricular function and mild left atrial dilatation. Her CHA2DS2-VASc score is calculated as 4 (age ≥ 65: 1 pt, female sex: 1 pt, hypertension: 1 pt, diabetes: 1 pt). What is the most appropriate management regarding stroke prevention?
A.Prescribe acetylsalicylic acid (Trombyl) 75 mg once daily
B.Start oral anticoagulation with a DOAC (e.g. apixaban)
C.Prescribe combination therapy with acetylsalicylic acid 75 mg and clopidogrel 75 mg daily
D.Withhold antithrombotic therapy until a 48-hour Holter monitor documents sustained fibrillation
Explanation: In atrial fibrillation without mechanical valves or moderate-to-severe mitral stenosis, oral anticoagulation is indicated when the stroke risk score is raised. With CHA2DS2-VASc, anticoagulation is recommended at a score of 2 or more in men and 3 or more in women; the 2024 ESC guideline uses CHA2DS2-VA (without sex), recommending anticoagulation at 2 or more. Direct oral anticoagulants are preferred over warfarin because of lower intracranial bleeding risk and no need for INR monitoring. Aspirin or dual antiplatelet therapy does not prevent cardioembolic stroke effectively and still causes bleeding.
7A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a severe occipital headache, blurred vision, and nausea. Blood pressure is 230/135 mmHg bilaterally. Fundoscopic examination reveals bilateral flame hemorrhages and papilledema. Laboratory evaluation demonstrates serum creatinine 210 µmol/L (baseline 85 µmol/L 3 months ago) and microscopic hematuria. A non-contrast head CT rules out intracranial hemorrhage. What is the most appropriate initial blood pressure target and pharmacotherapeutic approach?
A.Oral amlodipine 10 mg with sublingual nifedipine 10 mg capsule bitten and swallowed
B.Rapid intravenous nitroprusside infusion targeting a normal blood pressure (< 120/80 mmHg) within 30 minutes
C.Intravenous labetalol with a goal of lowering mean arterial pressure by no more than 20% to 25% over the first hour
D.Immediate intravenous furosemide 80 mg bolus alone to induce rapid diuresis and volume depletion
Explanation: This patient has a hypertensive emergency with acute hypertension-mediated organ damage (HMOD), specifically grade IV hypertensive retinopathy (papilledema) and acute kidney injury. In hypertensive emergencies, the blood pressure must be reduced promptly with titratable intravenous agents (such as labetalol, nicardipine, or clevidipine), but the reduction should be gradual—typically reducing mean arterial pressure by no more than 20-25% over the first hour to prevent cerebral, renal, and myocardial hypoperfusion resulting from shifted autoregulation curves.
8A 48-year-old woman who had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 10 days ago presents with sudden severe dyspnoea, pleuritic chest pain and light-headedness. Blood pressure is 78/45 mmHg, pulse 128/min, respiratory rate 32/min and SpO2 86% on air, with distended neck veins. Bedside echocardiography shows a dilated, hypokinetic right ventricle with septal flattening. Oxygen and a 500 mL crystalloid bolus do not restore blood pressure. What is the immediate treatment of choice?
A.Immediate surgical embolectomy without any prior medical therapy
B.Subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin (dalteparin) at weight-adjusted therapeutic dosing
C.Systemic thrombolysis with intravenous alteplase (rtPA) 100 mg infused over 2 hours
D.Oral rivaroxaban 15 mg twice daily with food
Explanation: This patient presents with high-risk (massive) pulmonary embolism, defined by acute hemodynamic instability (persistent systemic hypotension with systolic blood pressure < 90 mmHg or obstructive shock) and echocardiographic evidence of acute right ventricular strain. According to ESC and Swedish national guidelines, immediate reperfusion therapy with intravenous systemic thrombolysis (alteplase 100 mg over 2 hours, or an accelerated 0.6 mg/kg regimen over 15 minutes in cardiac arrest) is the primary treatment of choice. Parenteral anticoagulation with unfractionated heparin should be started concurrently.
9A 23-year-old man with known bronchial asthma is brought to the emergency department during an acute exacerbation triggered by a viral upper respiratory tract infection. He can only speak in short phrases. Vital signs: respiratory rate 30 breaths/min, pulse 115 beats/min, blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, SpO2 91% on room air. Auscultation reveals extensive bilateral expiratory and inspiratory wheezing. Peak expiratory flow (PEF) is 45% of his personal best. According to Swedish emergency guidelines, what is the initial medical management?
A.Subcutaneous terbutaline injection with intravenous magnesium sulfate monotherapy
B.Inhaled fluticasone monotherapy with high-dose intravenous aminophylline
C.Immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation
D.Oxygen to SpO2 93–95%, nebulized salbutamol plus ipratropium, and oral corticosteroid
Explanation: Initial management of acute moderate-to-severe asthma exacerbation comprises controlled oxygen therapy (target SpO2 93-95%), repeated or continuous nebulized short-acting beta-2 agonist (salbutamol 5 mg) combined with an inhaled anticholinergic (ipratropium bromide 0.5 mg), and early administration of systemic corticosteroids (oral betamethasone 3-4 mg or prednisolone 40-50 mg). Systemic corticosteroids reduce inflammatory mucosal edema and prevent relapse. Nebulized bronchodilators act synergistically on smooth muscle relaxation.
10A 71-year-old man with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD, GOLD stage IV) is admitted with an acute infective exacerbation. He is tachypneic and drowsy. Arterial blood gas on 3 L/min nasal oxygen shows: pH 7.26, PaCO2 8.4 kPa (63 mmHg), PaO2 8.1 kPa (61 mmHg), HCO3- 32 mmol/L, Base Excess +6 mmol/L, and oxygen saturation 89%. Despite initial treatment with nebulized bronchodilators and intravenous corticosteroids, repeat ABG 45 minutes later shows pH 7.24 and PaCO2 8.9 kPa. What is the next most appropriate intervention?
A.Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIV / BiPAP)
B.Increase oxygen flow to 10 L/min via a non-rebreather mask
C.Immediate endotracheal intubation and invasive mechanical ventilation
D.Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate 100 mL
Explanation: Non-invasive ventilation (NIV/BiPAP) is the evidence-based treatment of choice for acute hypercapnic respiratory failure secondary to a COPD exacerbation with persistent respiratory acidosis (pH < 7.35, PaCO2 > 6.0-6.5 kPa) despite optimized medical therapy. NIV reduces work of breathing, improves alveolar ventilation, lowers mortality, and reduces the need for invasive endotracheal intubation. The target SpO2 in COPD patients at risk of hypercapnia is 88-92%.

About the Sweden Medical Knowledge Test (Kunskapsprov för läkare) Exam

Kunskapsprov för läkare is Socialstyrelsen's knowledge test for doctors educated outside the EU/EEA who want a Swedish licence. Umeå universitet runs a one-day digital theoretical test with multiple-choice parts (clinical cases, MCQ140 and a scientific article) and a two-day practical OSCE. This page offers independent English-language practice for the clinical and legal knowledge the test covers.

Exam sponsor: Umeå universitet on behalf of Socialstyrelsen (National Board of Health and Welfare). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Theoretical test (one day, digital, 7.5 hours): clinical cases, MCQ140 and a scientific article part, all multiple-choice. Practical test (two days): OSCE with short and longer clinical stations.

Time Limit

Theoretical test: 7.5 hours over one day; practical OSCE: two days

Passing Score

Not published as a fixed percentage; theoretical test at the level of a licensed doctor; OSCE assessed with station scores and global ratings

Exam / Certification Fees

No examination fee published (SEK 990 Socialstyrelsen application fee for the earlier education review)

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

35 practice questions

Internal medicine and neurology

Infections, cardiology, respiratory, gastroenterology, nephrology, endocrinology, haematology, emergencies and acute neurology.

20 practice questions

Surgery, orthopaedics and urology

Acute abdomen, vascular emergencies, fractures, urological emergencies and anaesthesia.

15 practice questions

Paediatrics

Neonatology, common infections, emergencies, diabetes, vaccination and child protection.

15 practice questions

Obstetrics and gynaecology

Pregnancy complications, labour, postpartum haemorrhage, screening and gynaecological emergencies.

5 practice questions

Psychiatry

Depression, mania, psychosis, alcohol withdrawal and LPT.

10 practice questions

General practice, pharmacology and law

Prescribing, interactions, poisoning and Swedish health care law.

Preparing for the Sweden Medical Knowledge Test (Kunskapsprov för läkare) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Not published as a fixed percentage; theoretical test at the level of a licensed doctor; OSCE assessed with station scores and global ratings
  • Assessment: Theoretical test (one day, digital, 7.5 hours): clinical cases, MCQ140 and a scientific article part, all multiple-choice. Practical test (two days): OSCE with short and longer clinical stations.
  • Time limit: Theoretical test: 7.5 hours over one day; practical OSCE: two days
  • Exam / certification fees: No examination fee published (SEK 990 Socialstyrelsen application fee for the earlier education review) Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Sweden Medical Knowledge Test (Kunskapsprov för läkare): Suggested Study Strategy

1Work through the previous theoretical tests that Umeå universitet publishes for each part (clinical cases, MCQ140 and scientific article).
2Learn Swedish treatment recommendations, especially Folkhälsomyndigheten's and Läkemedelsverket's narrow-spectrum antibiotic choices.
3Know the Swedish legal framework a junior doctor uses daily: LPT, the Communicable Diseases Act, Lex Maria, reporting duties to social services and the Transport Agency, and sickness certification.
4Practise reading an English research article quickly and answering questions on design, results and interpretation.
5Practise structured history-taking, examination and communication in Swedish for the OSCE.

Frequently Asked Questions

How is the theoretical test structured?

It is taken digitally in an examination hall on one day and consists of several parts totalling 7.5 hours, all with multiple-choice questions: clinical cases, a 140-question MCQ part and questions on a scientific article. Umeå universitet publishes previous tests for each part.

What is the practical test?

After passing the theoretical test you take an OSCE over two days with shorter and longer clinical stations, assessed with station scores and examiners' global ratings.

When is the test held?

Umeå universitet lists preliminary dates for the theoretical test; for 2026 these were 22 September and 26 November, and for 2027 23 February, 20 May, 21 September and 25 November.

How many attempts do I get?

Five attempts at the theoretical test and three at the practical test, and the whole test must be passed within five years of your first sitting.

Is the test available in English?

No. The test is in Swedish, with a small share of English material such as the scientific article. This bank is an English-language multiple-choice study adaptation: it helps you review the knowledge areas but is not an official translation, and it cannot simulate the OSCE.