PracticeVideosBlogFlashcardsEspañol
All Practice Exams

Free Practice Questions for Sweden Audiologist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för audionomer)

Exam-style questions and explanations by OpenExamPrep.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card
100+ Questions
100% Free

Loading practice questions...

Same family resources

Explore More Sweden Healthcare Professional Licensing Examinations (Kunskapsprov)

Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.

Sweden Biomedical Laboratory Scientist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för biomedicinska analytiker)

Practice Questions100 questions

Sweden Dental Hygienist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för tandhygienister)

Practice Questions100 questions

Sweden Dentist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för tandläkare)

Practice Questions100 questions

Sweden Dietitian Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för dietister)

Practice Questions100 questions

Sweden Dispensing Pharmacist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för receptarier)

Practice Questions100 questions

Sweden Hospital Physicist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för sjukhusfysiker)

Practice Questions100 questions
Exam Review

Key Facts: Sweden Audiologist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för audionomer) Exam

100 questions

Theory test items in four parts, 95 of them multiple-choice (December 2024 paper)

Göteborgs universitet

3 hours

Length of the written theory test (December 2024 paper)

Göteborgs universitet

60% / 70%

Pass marks: Part A 60%; Parts B, C and D 70% each

Göteborgs universitet

Half a day

Length of the practical test of clinical diagnostic and rehabilitation tasks

Göteborgs universitet

5 / 3

Maximum attempts: five for the theoretical test, three for the practical test

Socialstyrelsen

Kunskapsprov för audionomer is run by Göteborgs universitet for Socialstyrelsen: a 3-hour theory test of 100 questions (95 multiple-choice in Parts A–C plus a free-text patient case in Part D, each part passed separately) and a half-day practical test. Candidates have up to five theory and three practical attempts within five years of the first sitting. The test is in Swedish; this 100-question bank is an English-language MCQ study adaptation, not an official translation, and it does not simulate the patient case or the practical test.

Sample Sweden Audiologist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för audionomer) Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the Sweden Audiologist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för audionomer) exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1During pure-tone air-conduction audiometry in adults following ISO 8253-1, which threshold-seeking method and starting frequency are standard?
A.Ascending 10 dB steps and descending 5 dB steps, starting at 250 Hz at 0 dB HL
B.Fixed descending 5 dB steps without ascending verification, beginning at 8000 Hz and progressing down to 125 Hz
C.Modified Hughson-Westlake: 10 dB down after a response, 5 dB up after none, starting at 1000 Hz
D.Random presentation of continuous tones between 10 dB and 80 dB HL across octave frequencies
Explanation: Standard clinical audiometry adheres to ISO 8253-1 using the modified Hughson-Westlake procedure (down 10 dB following a response, up 5 dB until a response occurs). Testing initiates at 1000 Hz at a clearly audible level (usually 30–40 dB HL for normal-hearing individuals), proceeds through higher frequencies (2000, 4000, 8000 Hz), retests 1000 Hz for reliability, and concludes with lower frequencies (500, 250, 125 Hz).
2What is the primary clinical advantage of using insert earphones (instickshörtelefoner, e.g., ER-3A) compared to standard supra-aural earphones (TDH-39) regarding interaural attenuation (IA)?
A.Higher interaural attenuation (about 55–70 dB vs about 40 dB), so masking is needed less often
B.Insert earphones eliminate the need for masking during bone conduction testing entirely
C.Insert earphones completely prevent sound crossover through the skull regardless of presentation level
D.Insert earphones decrease interaural attenuation to 20 dB, facilitating crossover detection
Explanation: Insert earphones with deeply fitted foam tips achieve an interaural attenuation of 55 to 70 dB (compared to approximately 40 dB for supra-aural TDH-39 earphones). This higher crossover threshold substantially reduces the frequency of masking situations during air conduction testing and prevents collapsed ear canals in elderly patients.
3An audiologist performs unmasked bone conduction testing with a mastoid-placed vibrator (B-71) while the non-test ear is covered by a supra-aural earphone. What phenomenon may artificially improve the bone conduction threshold at 250 Hz and 500 Hz?
A.The carhart phenomenon
B.Temporal summation
C.Acoustic reflex decay
D.The occlusion effect
Explanation: The occlusion effect (ocklusionseffekten) occurs when the external auditory canal is occluded by an earphone during bone conduction testing. Trapped osseotympanic vibrations enhance low-frequency energy delivered to the inner ear, improving bone conduction thresholds by up to 15–20 dB at 250 Hz and 500 Hz unless accounted for during masking.
4A 52-year-old patient has bilateral severe conductive hearing loss with air conduction thresholds of 70 dB HL and suspected bone conduction thresholds of 15 dB HL bilaterally. When attempting to mask the non-test ear, the minimum required masking level immediately crosses over and elevates the test ear threshold. What clinical challenge does this represent?
A.Central auditory processing fatigue
B.Masking dilemma (maskeringsdilemma)
C.Over-recruitment phenomenon
D.Vestibular cross-stimulation
Explanation: A masking dilemma occurs when the minimum masking level needed to eliminate participation of the non-test ear exceeds the interaural attenuation for the masking noise, immediately causing overmasking of the test ear's bone conduction threshold. This is typical in bilateral conductive or mixed hearing losses with large air-bone gaps exceeding 40–50 dB.
5When applying Hood's plateau method (platåmetoden) during pure-tone masking in Sweden, how is a verified, true auditory threshold established?
A.When the patient fails to respond for three consecutive 10 dB increases in masking noise
B.When the masking level reaches the patient's uncomfortable loudness level
C.When the threshold stays the same over at least three successive 5 dB masking increases
D.When the tone threshold increases linearly by 1 dB for every 1 dB increase in masking noise
Explanation: In Hood's plateau method, effective masking noise is introduced into the non-test ear and raised in 5 dB steps. The true threshold of the test ear is identified when the patient's tone response remains stable across a masking plateau of at least 15 to 20 dB (three to four consecutive 5 dB increments without a threshold shift).
6Why is narrow-band noise (smalbandsbrus) specifically preferred over broad-band white noise for masking pure tones in clinical audiometry?
A.Narrow-band noise is easier to synthesize because it consists of a single harmonic pure tone
B.Narrow-band noise completely avoids all interaural crossover regardless of intensity
C.Narrow-band noise activates the efferent olivocochlear bundle to suppress middle ear acoustic reflections
D.It masks efficiently within the critical band around the test tone at a lower overall level
Explanation: According to Fletcher's critical band theory, only noise frequencies within a narrow band immediately surrounding a pure tone contribute to masking that tone. Narrow-band noise concentrates acoustic energy within this critical band, masking the tone effectively at a much lower overall SPL than broadband noise, thereby maximizing patient comfort and delaying overmasking.
7In speech audiometry, what is the speech recognition threshold (SRT), and how should it relate to the pure-tone thresholds in a valid test?
A.SRT is the presentation level where 100% of monosyllabic words are recognized, and it should exceed pure-tone average by at least 25 dB
B.The lowest level at which 50% of spondee words are repeated; it should agree closely with the PTA
C.SRT is the maximum intensity a patient can tolerate without pain, and it has no correlation with pure-tone thresholds
D.SRT is the level where continuous discourse is detected 10% of the time, and it always matches bone conduction at 250 Hz exactly
Explanation: The speech recognition threshold (SRT) is the lowest level at which the patient correctly repeats 50% of standardized two-syllable (spondee) words. In a reliable test it agrees closely with the pure-tone average over the main speech frequencies, typically within about 6 dB; a larger discrepancy suggests non-organic hearing loss or a steeply sloping audiogram.
8A patient undergoes Swedish speech discrimination testing using phonetically balanced monosyllabic word lists (enstaviga PB-ord). At what presentation level is maximal speech recognition score (maximal taluppfattning / PB-max) typically evaluated?
A.At 10 dB below the patient's pure-tone threshold at 1000 Hz
B.At the patient's uncomfortable loudness level (UCL / OBE) minus 2 dB
C.At a fixed universal level of 45 dB HL for all patients regardless of hearing loss severity
D.About 30–40 dB above the SRT, or at the most comfortable level, below discomfort
Explanation: To assess maximal speech discrimination (PB-max / maximal taluppfattning) with Swedish monosyllabic word lists, the stimuli are typically delivered at a sensation level of 30 to 40 dB SL above the patient's SRT or at their Most Comfortable Level (MCL). This ensures sufficient audibility across speech cues without causing distortion or discomfort.
9A 48-year-old patient with unilateral sensorineural hearing loss achieves a speech discrimination score of 82% at 65 dB HL. When the intensity is raised to 90 dB HL, their score drops precipitously to 36%. What audiological phenomenon is demonstrated, and what does it suggest?
A.Stenger effect, indicating functional non-organic overlay
B.Normal cochlear loudness adaptation typical of presbyacusis
C.Rollover, suggesting a retrocochlear lesion
D.Middle ear impedance mismatch caused by ossicular chain flaccidity
Explanation: The significant deterioration of speech recognition at high suprathreshold presentation levels is termed the rollover phenomenon. A rollover index [(PBmax - PBmin) / PBmax] exceeding 0.40–0.45 strongly points toward neural desynchronization and neural transmission failure characteristic of retrocochlear lesions, such as an acoustic neuroma (vestibularisschwannom).
10According to the Jerger classification system in tympanometry (tympanometri med 226 Hz), what features characterize a Type As tympanogram, and with which pathology is it most commonly associated?
A.Normal peak pressure with reduced compliance; typical of otosclerosis or tympanosclerosis
B.Markedly negative middle ear pressure (<-100 daPa) with normal static compliance, indicating Eustachian tube dysfunction
C.Extremely elevated compliance (>1.6 ml) with normal pressure, typical of ossicular discontinuity
D.Completely flat tracing with absent compliance peak and normal canal volume, diagnostic of otitis media with effusion
Explanation: A Type As tympanogram demonstrates normal middle ear pressure (peak between -100 and +50 daPa) but reduced peak static admittance/compliance (<0.3 ml or cm³), reflecting increased stiffness of the ossicular chain. It is classic for stapes fixation in otosclerosis or extensive fibrous tympanosclerosis.

About the Sweden Audiologist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för audionomer) Exam

Kunskapsprov för audionomer is Socialstyrelsen's knowledge test for audiologists educated outside the EU/EEA who want a Swedish licence. Göteborgs universitet runs it in Göteborg: a 3-hour written theory test with multiple-choice parts on audiology basics, hearing assessment and rehabilitation plus a free-text patient case, followed by a half-day practical test. This page offers independent English-language practice for the knowledge areas the test covers.

Exam sponsor: Göteborgs universitet on behalf of Socialstyrelsen (National Board of Health and Welfare). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Assessment

Theory test (3 hours, Göteborg): Part A audiology basics, Part B hearing assessment, Part C hearing rehabilitation (multiple-choice) and Part D patient case (free text); each part must be passed. Practical test (half a day, Göteborg): clinical diagnostic and rehabilitation tasks observed by an examiner.

Time Limit

Theory test: 3 hours; practical test: half a day

Passing Score

Each part passed separately; December 2024 pass marks: Part A 60%, Parts B–D 70%

Exam / Certification Fees

No examination fee published (SEK 990 Socialstyrelsen application fee for the earlier education review)

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

About 30 official questions; 26 practice questions

Audiology basics (Part A)

Acoustics and psychoacoustics, ear medicine, cognition, phonetics, research methods, prevention and professional and legal duties.

About 35 official questions; 35 practice questions plus paediatric assessment items

Hearing assessment (Part B)

Audiometry, masking, immittance, OAE, ABR, ASSR, vestibular tests and paediatric test methods.

About 30 official questions; 24 practice questions plus paediatric rehabilitation items

Hearing rehabilitation (Part C)

Hearing aids and verification, implants, assistive listening devices, outcome measures and children's habilitation.

Free-text part of the official test

Patient case (Part D)

Case reasoning about a patient with hearing problems, supported by the bank's case-based items.

Preparing for the Sweden Audiologist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för audionomer) Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Each part passed separately; December 2024 pass marks: Part A 60%, Parts B–D 70%
  • Assessment: Theory test (3 hours, Göteborg): Part A audiology basics, Part B hearing assessment, Part C hearing rehabilitation (multiple-choice) and Part D patient case (free text); each part must be passed. Practical test (half a day, Göteborg): clinical diagnostic and rehabilitation tasks observed by an examiner.
  • Time limit: Theory test: 3 hours; practical test: half a day
  • Exam / certification fees: No examination fee published (SEK 990 Socialstyrelsen application fee for the earlier education review) Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Sweden Audiologist Knowledge Exam (Kunskapsprov för audionomer): Suggested Study Strategy

1Work through the previous tests Göteborgs universitet publishes; they show the balance of Parts A, B and C and the style of the patient case.
2Do not neglect Part A: acoustics, medicine, cognition, phonetics, research methods and prevention all appear, and the part must be passed on its own.
3Practise masking calculations, audiogram interpretation and test-battery reasoning (tympanometry, reflexes, OAE, ABR) for Part B.
4For Part C, know hearing aid fitting and verification (prescription formulas, REM, RECD), implants and assistive listening devices.
5Write short case analyses in Swedish to prepare for the free-text patient case in Part D.
6Learn the Swedish rules that shape practice, such as Patientlagen's right to choose among available assistive devices and HSLF-FS 2021:52 on prescribing.

Frequently Asked Questions

How is the Kunskapsprov för audionomer structured?

The written theory test has 100 questions in four parts: Part A audiology basics, Part B hearing assessment and Part C hearing rehabilitation are multiple-choice (95 questions in total), and Part D is a patient case answered in free text. Every part must be passed. After passing the theory test you take a half-day practical test in which an examiner observes clinical diagnostic and rehabilitation tasks.

What are the pass marks?

On the December 2024 theory paper, Part A required 60% and Parts B, C and D 70% each, and all parts had to be passed. The practical test is assessed against preset criteria.

Where and when is the test held?

Both parts are held in Göteborg. Göteborgs universitet offers a test within about four months of registration; in autumn 2026 the theory test was on 4 September and the practical test on 1 October.

How many attempts do I get?

Socialstyrelsen allows five attempts at the theoretical test and three at the practical test, and the whole test must be passed within five years of your first sitting.

Is the test available in English?

No. The test is in Swedish. This bank is an English-language multiple-choice study adaptation: it helps you review the knowledge areas but is not an official translation, and it cannot simulate the free-text patient case or the practical test.